iQuiz Pro: December 2016

Archive for December 2016

If the auditor believes that required disclosures are omitted from the financial statements, the auditor should decide between issuing a(n)

If the auditor believes that required disclosures are omitted from the financial statements, the auditor should decide between issuing a(n) a. Qualified...

Keller, CPA, was about to issue an unqualified opinion on the financial statements of Lupton Television Broadcasting company when a letter was received from Lupton's independent counsel. The letter stated that the Federal Communications Commission has notified Lupton that its broadcasting license will not be renewed because of alleged irregularities in its broadcasting practices. Lupton cannot continue to operate without the license. Keller has also learned that Lupton and its independent counsel plan to take all necessary legal action to retain the license. The letter from independent counsel, however, states that a favorable outcome of any legal action is highly uncertain. On the basis of this information, what action should Keller take?

Keller, CPA, was about to issue an unqualified opinion on the financial statements of Lupton Television Broadcasting company when a letter was received...

An auditor concludes that there is substantial doubt about an entity's ability to continue as a going concern. If the entity's disclosures about continued existence are adequate, the audit report may include A Disclaimer of Opinion A qualifed Opinion ----------------------- ------------------

An auditor concludes that there is substantial doubt about an entity's ability to continue as a going concern. If the entity's disclosures about continued...

When management prepares financial statements on the basis of a going concern and the auditor believes the company may not continue as a going concern, the auditor should issue a(n)

When management prepares financial statements on the basis of a going concern and the auditor believes the company may not continue as a going concern,...

An auditor's report that refers to a departure form generally accepted accounting principles includes the language. "In our opinion, with the foregoing explanation, the financial statements referred to above present fairly...." This is a(n)

An auditor's report that refers to a departure form generally accepted accounting principles includes the language. "In our opinion, with the foregoing...

An explanatory paragraph following an opinion paragraph describes an uncertainty as follows: As discussed in Note X to the financial statements, the company is a defendant in a lawsuit alleging infringement of certain patent rights and claiming damages. Discovery proceedings are in progress. The ultimate outcome of the litigation cannot presently be determined. Accordingly, no provision for any liability that may result upon adjudication has been made in the accompanying financial statements. What type of opinion should the auditor express in this circumstance?

An explanatory paragraph following an opinion paragraph describes an uncertainty as follows:As discussed in Note X to the financial statements, the...

An auditor may issue a qualified opinion for Inadequate Scope Disclosure Limitation

An auditor may issue a qualified opinion forInadequate ScopeDisclosure Limitation ---------- ---------- a. Yes Yes b. Yes No c. No Yes d. No No Answer:...

A principal auditor is satisfied both with the independence and professional reputation of another auditor who audited a subsidiary, but wants to share responsibility with the other auditor in the audit report. The principal auditor should

A principal auditor is satisfied both with the independence and professional reputation of another auditor who audited a subsidiary, but wants to share...

An auditor is unable to determine the amounts associated with illegal acts committed by a client. The auditor would most likely issue

An auditor is unable to determine the amounts associated with illegal acts committed by a client. The auditor would most likely issue a. Either...

Does an auditor make the following representations explicitly or implicitly in a standard audit report on comparative financial statements?

Does an auditor make the following representations explicitly or implicitly in a standard audit report on comparative financial statements? Accounting...

Under Statement on Auditing Standards No. 59, "The Auditor's consideration of an Entity's Ability to continue as a Going Concern," an independent auditor is responsible for

Under Statement on Auditing Standards No. 59, "The Auditor's consideration of an Entity's Ability to continue as a Going Concern," an independent auditor...

Which of the following statements indicates a qualified opinion?

Which of the following statements indicates a qualified opinion? a. The financial statements do not present fairly in all material respects the...

An auditor completed field work on February 10, 2002 for a December 31, 2001 year-end client. A significant subsequent event occurred on February 22, 2002. In this case, which of the following report dates would not be appropriate?

An auditor completed field work on February 10, 2002 for a December 31, 2001 year-end client. A significant subsequent event occurred on February 22,...

An audit report should be dated as of the

An audit report should be dated as of the a. Date the report is delivered to the entity audited. b. Date of the last day of fieldwork. c. Balance...

In which of the following circumstances would an adverse opinion be appropriate?

In which of the following circumstances would an adverse opinion be appropriate? a. The auditor is not independent with respect to the enterprise...

An auditor includes an explanatory paragraph in an otherwise unqualified report in order to emphasize that the entity being reported on is a subsidiary of another business enterprise. The inclusion of this paragraph

An auditor includes an explanatory paragraph in an otherwise unqualified report in order to emphasize that the entity being reported on is a subsidiary...

Under which of the following sets of circumstances might an auditor disclaim an opinion?

Under which of the following sets of circumstances might an auditor disclaim an opinion? a. The financial statements contain a departure from GAAP,...

Raider, Inc. uses the last-in, first-out method to value half of its inventory and the first-in, first-out method to value the other half. Assuming the auditor is satisfied in all other respects, under these circumstances the auditor will issue a(n)

Raider, Inc. uses the last-in, first-out method to value half of its inventory and the first-in, first-out method to value the other half. Assuming...

An auditor's standard report expressed an unqualified opinion and includes an explanatory paragraph that emphasizes a matter included in the notes to the financial statements. The auditor's report would be deficient if the explanatory paragraph states that the entity

An auditor's standard report expressed an unqualified opinion and includes an explanatory paragraph that emphasizes a matter included in the notes to...

When comparative financial statements are presented, the fourth reporting standard, which refers to financial statements "taken as a whole", should be considered to apply to the financial statements of the

When comparative financial statements are presented, the fourth reporting standard, which refers to financial statements "taken as a whole", should...

If an accounting change has no material effect on the financial statements in the current year but the change is reasonably certain to have a material effect in later years, the change should be

If an accounting change has no material effect on the financial statements in the current year but the change is reasonably certain to have a material...

If the auditor believes there is minimal likelihood that resolution of an uncertainty will have a material effect on the financial statements, the auditor would issue a(n)

If the auditor believes there is minimal likelihood that resolution of an uncertainty will have a material effect on the financial statements, the auditor...

An auditor's report includes a statement that "the financial statements do not present fairly the financial position in conformity with generally accepted accounting principles." This auditor's report was probably issued in connection with financial statements that were

An auditor's report includes a statement that "the financial statements do not present fairly the financial position in conformity with generally accepted...

An auditor's opinion read as follows: "In our opinion, except for the above-mentioned limitation on the scope of our audit.." This is an example of a(n)

An auditor's opinion read as follows: "In our opinion, except for the above-mentioned limitation on the scope of our audit.." This is an example of...

The fourth reporting standard requires that the auditor's report contain either an expression of opinion regarding the financial statements taken as a whole or an assertion that an opinion cannot be expressed. The objective of the fourth standard is to prevent

The fourth reporting standard requires that the auditor's report contain either an expression of opinion regarding the financial statements taken as...

An auditor would issue an adverse opinion if

An auditor would issue an adverse opinion if a. The audit was begun by other independent auditors who withdrew from the engagement. b. A qualified...

The management of a client company believes that the statement of cash flow is not a useful document and refuses to include one in the annual report to stockholders. As a result, the auditor's opinion should be

The management of a client company believes that the statement of cash flow is not a useful document and refuses to include one in the annual report...

When financial statements are presented that are not in conformity with generally accepted accounting principles, an auditor may issue a(n) Qualified Opinion Adverse Opinion

When financial statements are presented that are not in conformity with generally accepted accounting principles, an auditor may issue a(n) Qualified...

In which of the following situations would the auditor appropriately issue a standard unqualified report with no explanatory paragraph concerning consistency?

In which of the following situations would the auditor appropriately issue a standard unqualified report with no explanatory paragraph concerning consistency? a....

An auditor's report contains the following: We did not audit the financial statements of B Company, a consolidated subsidiary, which statements reflect total assets and revenues constituting 20 percent and 22 percent, respectively, of the related consolidated totals. These statements were audited by other auditors, whose report has been furnished to us, and our opinion insofar as it relates to the amounts included for B Company, is based solely upon the report of the other auditors. These sentences

An auditor's report contains the following: We did not audit the financial statements of B Company, a consolidated subsidiary, which statements reflect...

Which of the following statements best describes the primary purpose of Statements on Auditing Standards?

Which of the following statements best describes the primary purpose of Statements on Auditing Standards? a. Guides intended to set forth auditing...

A public accounting firm studies its personnel advancement experience to determine whether individuals meeting stated criteria are assigned increased degrees of responsibility. This is evidence of the firm's adherence to

A public accounting firm studies its personnel advancement experience to determine whether individuals meeting stated criteria are assigned increased...

In pursuing its quality control objectives with respect to assigning personnel to engagements, a public accounting firm may use policies and procedures such as

In pursuing its quality control objectives with respect to assigning personnel to engagements, a public accounting firm may use policies and procedures...

The objective of quality control mandates that a public accounting firm should establish policies and procedures for professional development that provide reasonable assurance that all entry-level personnel

The objective of quality control mandates that a public accounting firm should establish policies and procedures for professional development that provide...

The concept of materiality would be least important to an auditor in determining

The concept of materiality would be least important to an auditor in determining a. Transactions that should be reviewed. b. The need for disclosing...

The auditor's judgment concerning the overall fairness of the presentation of financial positions, results of operations and cash flows is applied within the framework of

The auditor's judgment concerning the overall fairness of the presentation of financial positions, results of operations and cash flows is applied within...

The fourth generally accepted auditing standard of reporting requires an auditor to render a report whenever an auditor's name is associated with financial statements. The overall purpose of the fourth standard of reporting is to require that reports

The fourth generally accepted auditing standard of reporting requires an auditor to render a report whenever an auditor's name is associated with financial...

Which of the following underlies the application of generally accepted auditing standards, particularly the standards of field work and reporting?

Which of the following underlies the application of generally accepted auditing standards, particularly the standards of field work and reporting? a....

In connection with the third generally accepted auditing standard of field work, an auditor examines corroborating evidential matter that includes all of the following except

In connection with the third generally accepted auditing standard of field work, an auditor examines corroborating evidential matter that includes all...

The first standard of field work, which states that the work is to be adequately planned and assistants, if any, are to be properly supervised, recognizes that

The first standard of field work, which states that the work is to be adequately planned and assistants, if any, are to be properly supervised, recognizes...

The third general standard states that due care is to be exercised in the performance of an audit, and should be interpreted to mean that an auditor who undertakes an engagement assumes a duty to perform

The third general standard states that due care is to be exercised in the performance of an audit, and should be interpreted to mean that an auditor...

What is the meaning of the generally accepted auditing standard that requires that the auditor be independent?

What is the meaning of the generally accepted auditing standard that requires that the auditor be independent? a. The auditor must be without bias...

The first general standard requires that a person or persons have adequate technical training and proficiency as an auditor. This standard is met by

The first general standard requires that a person or persons have adequate technical training and proficiency as an auditor. This standard is met by a....

Which of the following is mandatory if the auditor is to comply with the general standards of the AICPA's generally accepted auditing standards?

Which of the following is mandatory if the auditor is to comply with the general standards of the AICPA's generally accepted auditing standards? a....

An auditor is most likely to refer to one or more of the three general auditing standards in determining

An auditor is most likely to refer to one or more of the three general auditing standards in determining a. The nature of a report qualification. b....

The "hallmark" of auditing is

The "hallmark" of auditing is a. Available audit technology. b. Generally accepted auditing standards. c. Professional judgment. d. Materiality and...

What is the magnitude of audit risk if inherent risk is .50, control risk is .40, and detection risk is .10?

What is the magnitude of audit risk if inherent risk is .50, control risk is .40, and detection risk is .10? a. .20. b. .10. c. .40. d. .04. Answer:...

In a financial statement audit, inherent risk represents the

In a financial statement audit, inherent risk represents the a. Susceptibility of an account balance to error that could be material. b. Risk that...

In a financial statement audit, audit risk represents the probability that

In a financial statement audit, audit risk represents the probability that a. Internal control fails and the failure is not detected by the auditor's...

Williams & Co., a large international public accounting firm, is due to have a peer review. The peer review will most likely be performed by

Williams & Co., a large international public accounting firm, is due to have a peer review. The peer review will most likely be performed by a....

Which of the following is not an element of quality control?

Which of the following is not an element of quality control? a. Documentation b. Inspection. c. Supervision d. Consultation. Answer:...

Which organelle often takes up much of the volume of a plant cell?

Which organelle often takes up much of the volume of a plant cell? A) lysosome B) vacuole C) mitochondrion D) Golgi apparatus E) peroxisome Answer:...

Which of the following contains hydrolytic enzymes?

Which of the following contains hydrolytic enzymes? A) lysosome B) vacuole C) mitochondrion D) Golgi apparatus E) peroxisome Answer:...

Which of the following produces and modifies polysaccharides that will be secreted?

Which of the following produces and modifies polysaccharides that will be secreted? A) lysosome B) vacuole C) mitochondrion D) Golgi apparatus E)...

The liver is involved in detoxification of many poisons and drugs. Which of the following structures is primarily involved in this process and therefore abundant in liver cells?

The liver is involved in detoxification of many poisons and drugs. Which of the following structures is primarily involved in this process and therefore...

Tay-Sachs disease is a human genetic abnormality that results in cells accumulating and becoming clogged with very large and complex lipids. Which cellular organelle must be involved in this condition?

Tay-Sachs disease is a human genetic abnormality that results in cells accumulating and becoming clogged with very large and complex lipids. Which cellular...

Which of the following statements correctly describes some aspect of protein secretion from prokaryotic cells?

Which of the following statements correctly describes some aspect of protein secretion from prokaryotic cells? A) Prokaryotes are unlikely...

Hydrolytic enzymes must be segregated and packaged to prevent general destruction of cellular components. Which of the following organelles contains these hydrolytic enzymes in animal cells?

Hydrolytic enzymes must be segregated and packaged to prevent general destruction of cellular components. Which of the following organelles contains...

The difference in lipid and protein composition between the membranes of the endomembrane system is largely determined by

The difference in lipid and protein composition between the membranes of the endomembrane system is largely determined by A) the physical...

The fact that the outer membrane of the nuclear envelope has bound ribosomes allows one to most reliably conclude that

The fact that the outer membrane of the nuclear envelope has bound ribosomes allows one to most reliably conclude that A) at least some of...

The Golgi apparatus has a polarity or sidedness to its structure and function. Which of the following statements correctly describes this polarity?

The Golgi apparatus has a polarity or sidedness to its structure and function. Which of the following statements correctly describes this polarity? A)...

Which structure is the site of the synthesis of proteins that may be exported from the cell?

Which structure is the site of the synthesis of proteins that may be exported from the cell? A) rough ER B) lysosomes C) plasmodesmata D)...

Which type of organelle or structure is primarily involved in the synthesis of oils, phospholipids, and steroids?

Which type of organelle or structure is primarily involved in the synthesis of oils, phospholipids, and steroids? A) ribosome B) lysosome C)...

A cell with a predominance of free ribosomes is most likely

A cell with a predominance of free ribosomes is most likely A) producing primarily proteins for secretion. B) producing primarily cytoplasmic...

Recent evidence shows that when chromosomes decondense during interphase, their DNA molecules do not intermingle. Instead, they occupy distinct territories within the nucleus. Considering the structure and location of the following structures, which is most likely to be involved in chromosome location?

Recent evidence shows that when chromosomes decondense during interphase, their DNA molecules do not intermingle. Instead, they occupy distinct territories...

The nuclear lamina is an array of filaments on the inner side of the nuclear membrane. If a method were found that could cause the lamina to fall into disarray, what would you expect to be the most likely consequence?

The nuclear lamina is an array of filaments on the inner side of the nuclear membrane. If a method were found that could cause the lamina to fall into...

Large numbers of ribosomes are present in cells that specialize in producing which of the following molecules?

Large numbers of ribosomes are present in cells that specialize in producing which of the following molecules? A) lipids B) glycogen C) proteins D)...

Which organelle or structure is absent in plant cells?

Which organelle or structure is absent in plant cells? A) mitochondria B) Golgi vesicles C) microtubules D) centrosomes E) peroxisomes Answer:...

If radioactive deoxythymidine triphosphate (dTTP) is added to a culture of rapidly growing bacterial cells, where in the cell would you expect to find the greatest concentration of radioactivity?

If radioactive deoxythymidine triphosphate (dTTP) is added to a culture of rapidly growing bacterial cells, where in the cell would you expect to find...

Prokaryotes are classified as belonging to two different domains. What are the domains?

Prokaryotes are classified as belonging to two different domains. What are the domains? A) Bacteria and Eukarya B) Bacteria and Archaea C) Archaea...

The evolution of eukaryotic cells most likely involved

The evolution of eukaryotic cells most likely involved A) endosymbiosis of an aerobic bacterium in a larger host cell–the endosymbiont evolved...

Which of the following statements concerning bacteria and archaea cells is correct?

Which of the following statements concerning bacteria and archaea cells is correct? A) Archaea cells contain small membrane-enclosed organelles;...

Which of the following is a major cause of the size limits for certain types of cells?

Which of the following is a major cause of the size limits for certain types of cells? A) limitation on the strength and integrity of the...

A mycoplasma is an organism with a diameter between 0.1 and 1.0 µm. What does the organism's size tell you about how it might be classified?

A mycoplasma is an organism with a diameter between 0.1 and 1.0 µm. What does the organism's size tell you about how it might be classified? A)...

The volume enclosed by the plasma membrane of plant cells is often much larger than the corresponding volume in animal cells. The most reasonable explanation for this observation is that

The volume enclosed by the plasma membrane of plant cells is often much larger than the corresponding volume in animal cells. The most reasonable explanation...

All of the following are part of a prokaryotic cell except

All of the following are part of a prokaryotic cell except A) DNA. B) a cell wall. C) a plasma membrane. D) ribosomes. E) an endoplasmic...

What technique would be most appropriate to use to observe the movements of condensed chromosomes during cell division?

What technique would be most appropriate to use to observe the movements of condensed chromosomes during cell division? A) light microscopy B)...

What is the reason that a modern electron microscope (TEM) can resolve biological images to the subnanometer level, as opposed to tens of nanometers achievable for the best super-resolution light microscope?

What is the reason that a modern electron microscope (TEM) can resolve biological images to the subnanometer level, as opposed to tens of nanometers...

Green fluorescent protein (GFP) can be used to fluorescently label a specific protein in cells by genetically engineering cells to synthesize the target protein fused to GFP. What is the advantage of using GFP fusions to visualize specific proteins, instead of staining cells with fluorescently labeled probes that bind to the target protein?

Green fluorescent protein (GFP) can be used to fluorescently label a specific protein in cells by genetically engineering cells to synthesize the target...

Which of the following correctly lists the order in which cellular components will be found in the pellet when homogenized cells are treated with increasingly rapid spins in a centrifuge?

Which of the following correctly lists the order in which cellular components will be found in the pellet when homogenized cells are treated with increasingly...

In the fractionation of homogenized cells using centrifugation, the primary factor that determines whether a specific cellular component ends up in the supernatant or the pellet is

In the fractionation of homogenized cells using centrifugation, the primary factor that determines whether a specific cellular component ends up in...

A primary objective of cell fractionation is to

A primary objective of cell fractionation is to A) view the structure of cell membranes. B) sort cells based on their size and weight. C)...

The advantage of light microscopy over electron microscopy is that

The advantage of light microscopy over electron microscopy is that A) light microscopy provides for higher magnification than electron microscopy. B)...

When biologists wish to study the internal ultrastructure of cells, they can achieve the finest resolution by using

When biologists wish to study the internal ultrastructure of cells, they can achieve the finest resolution by using A) a phase-contrast light...

Which of the following pairs of base sequences could form a short stretch of a normal double helix of DNA?

Which of the following pairs of base sequences could form a short stretch of a normal double helix of DNA? A) 5'-purine-pyrimidine-purine-pyrimidine-3'...

The molecular formula for glucose is C6H12O6. What would be the molecular formula for a polymer made by linking ten glucose molecules together by dehydration reactions?

The molecular formula for glucose is C6H12O6. What would be the molecular formula for a polymer made by linking ten glucose molecules together by dehydration...

Enzymes that break down DNA catalyze the hydrolysis of the covalent bonds that join nucleotides together. What would happen to DNA molecules treated with these enzymes?

Enzymes that break down DNA catalyze the hydrolysis of the covalent bonds that join nucleotides together. What would happen to DNA molecules treated...

The structural level of a protein least affected by a disruption in hydrogen bonding is the

The structural level of a protein least affected by a disruption in hydrogen bonding is the A) primary level. B) secondary level. C) tertiary...

Which of the following statements concerning unsaturated fats is true?

Which of the following statements concerning unsaturated fats is true? A) They are more common in animals than in plants. B) They have double...

The enzyme amylase can break glycosidic linkages between glucose monomers only if the monomers are in the a form. Which of the following could amylase break down?

The enzyme amylase can break glycosidic linkages between glucose monomers only if the monomers are in the a form. Which of the following could amylase...

Which of the following categories includes all others in the list?

Which of the following categories includes all others in the list? A) monosaccharide B) disaccharide C) starch D) carbohydrate E) polysaccharide Answer:...

Professor Jamey Marth at the University of California, Santa Barbara, identified 70 molecules that are used to build cellular macromolecules and structures. These include at least 34 saccharides, 8 nucleosides, and 20 amino acids. In theory, then, which class of biological polymer has the greatest information-coding capacity?

Professor Jamey Marth at the University of California, Santa Barbara, identified 70 molecules that are used to build cellular macromolecules and structures....

Which class of biological polymer has the greatest functional variety?

Which class of biological polymer has the greatest functional variety? A) polysaccharides B) proteins C) DNA D) RNA Answer:...

Approximately 32 different monomeric carbohydrate subunits are found in various natural polysaccharides. Proteins are composed of 20 different amino acids. DNA and RNA are each synthesized from four nucleotides. Among these biological polymers, which has the least structural variety?

Approximately 32 different monomeric carbohydrate subunits are found in various natural polysaccharides. Proteins are composed of 20 different amino...

If two molecules of the general type shown in Figure 5.1 were linked together, carbon-1 of one molecule to carbon-4 of the other, the single molecule that would result would be

If two molecules of the general type shown in Figure 5.1 were linked together, carbon-1 of one molecule to carbon-4 of the other, the single molecule...

Which of the following is not a monomer/polymer pairing?

Which of the following is not a monomer/polymer pairing? A) monosaccharide/polysaccharide B) amino acid/protein C) triglyceride/phospholipid...

Which of the following is not a monomer/polymer pairing?

Which of the following is not a monomer/polymer pairing? A) monosaccharide/polysaccharide B) amino acid/protein C) triglyceride/phospholipid...

How will brief heating (to 95°C) affect macromolecular structures in aqueous solution?

How will brief heating (to 95°C) affect macromolecular structures in aqueous solution? A) DNA duplexes will unwind and separate. B) Proteins...

If cells are grown in a medium containing radioactive ¹5N, which of these molecules will be labeled?

If cells are grown in a medium containing radioactive ¹5N, which of these molecules will be labeled? A) fatty acids only B) nucleic acids...

If cells are grown in a medium containing radioactive ³²P-labeled phosphate, which of these molecules will be labeled?

If cells are grown in a medium containing radioactive ³²P-labeled phosphate, which of these molecules will be labeled? A) phospholipids B)...

Which of the following is an example of hydrolysis?

Which of the following is an example of hydrolysis? A) the reaction of two monosaccharides, forming a disaccharide with the release of water B)...

A new organism is discovered in the forests of Costa Rica. Scientists there determine that the polypeptide sequence of hemoglobin from the new organism has 72 amino acid differences from humans, 65 differences from a gibbon, 49 differences from a rat, and 5 differences from a frog. These data suggest that the new organism

A new organism is discovered in the forests of Costa Rica. Scientists there determine that the polypeptide sequence of hemoglobin from the new organism...

What is the structural feature that allows DNA to replicate?

What is the structural feature that allows DNA to replicate? A) sugar-phosphate backbone B) complementary pairing of the nitrogenous bases C)...

What is the pH of a 1 millimolar NaOH solution?

What is the pH of a 1 millimolar NaOH solution? A) pH 3 B) pH 8 C) pH 9 D) pH 10 E) pH 11 Answer:...

What is the pH of a solution with a hydroxyl ion [OH?] concentration of 10?¹² M?

What is the pH of a solution with a hydroxyl ion [OH?] concentration of 10?¹² M? A) pH 2 B) pH 4 C) pH 10 D) pH 12 E) pH 14 Answer:...

A solution contains 0.0000001(10?7) moles of hydroxyl ions [OH?] per liter. Which of the following best describes this solution?

A solution contains 0.0000001(10?7) moles of hydroxyl ions [OH?] per liter. Which of the following best describes this solution? A) acidic:...

A given solution contains 0.0001(10?4) moles of hydrogen ions [H?] per liter. Which of the following best describes this solution?

A given solution contains 0.0001(10?4) moles of hydrogen ions [H?] per liter. Which of the following best describes this solution? A) acidic:...

A 0.01 M solution of a substance has a pH of 2. What can you conclude about this substance?

A 0.01 M solution of a substance has a pH of 2. What can you conclude about this substance? A) It is a strong acid that ionizes completely...

Which of the following ionizes completely in solution and is considered to be a strong base (alkali)?

Which of the following ionizes completely in solution and is considered to be a strong base (alkali)? A) NaCl B) HCl C) NH3 D) H2CO3 E) NaOH Answer:...

A strong acid like HCl

A strong acid like HCl A) ionizes completely in an aqueous solution. B) increases the pH when added to an aqueous solution. C) reacts with...

You have a freshly prepared 1 M solution of glucose in water. You carefully pour out a 100 mL sample of that solution. How many glucose molecules are included in that 100 mL sample?

You have a freshly prepared 1 M solution of glucose in water. You carefully pour out a 100 mL sample of that solution. How many glucose molecules are...

The molecular weight of water is 18 daltons. What is the molarity of 1 liter of pure water? (Hint: What is the mass of 1 liter of pure water?)

The molecular weight of water is 18 daltons. What is the molarity of 1 liter of pure water? (Hint: What is the mass of 1 liter of pure water?) A)...

You have a freshly prepared 0.1 M solution of glucose in water. Each liter of this solution contains how many glucose molecules?

You have a freshly prepared 0.1 M solution of glucose in water. Each liter of this solution contains how many glucose molecules? A) 6.02 ×...

The molar mass of glucose (C6H12O6) is 180 g/mol. Which of the following procedures should you carry out to make a 0.5 M solution of glucose?

The molar mass of glucose (C6H12O6) is 180 g/mol. Which of the following procedures should you carry out to make a 0.5 M solution of glucose? A)...

The molar mass of glucose is 180 g/mol. Which of the following procedures should you carry out to make a 1 M solution of glucose?

The molar mass of glucose is 180 g/mol. Which of the following procedures should you carry out to make a 1 M solution of glucose? A) Dissolve...

How many molecules of glycerol (C3H8O3; molecular mass = 92) would be present in 1 L of a 1 M glycerol solution?

How many molecules of glycerol (C3H8O3; molecular mass = 92) would be present in 1 L of a 1 M glycerol solution? A) 1 × 106 B) 14 × 6.02...

How many molecules of glucose (C6H12O6 molecular mass = 180 daltons) would be present in 90 grams of glucose?

How many molecules of glucose (C6H12O6 molecular mass = 180 daltons) would be present in 90 grams of glucose? A) 90 × 10²³ B) (6.02/180)...

One mole (mol) of glucose (molecular mass = 180 daltons) is

One mole (mol) of glucose (molecular mass = 180 daltons) is A) 180 × 10²³ molecules of glucose. B) 1 kg of glucose dissolved in 1 L of solution. C)...

Hydrophobic substances such as vegetable oil are

Hydrophobic substances such as vegetable oil are A) nonpolar substances that repel water molecules. B) nonpolar substances that have an...

Why does ice float in liquid water?

Why does ice float in liquid water? A) The high surface tension of liquid water keeps the ice on top. B) The ionic bonds between the molecules...

Why does evaporation of water from a surface cause cooling of the surface?

Why does evaporation of water from a surface cause cooling of the surface? A) The breaking of bonds between water molecules absorbs heat. B)...

Temperature usually increases when water condenses. Which behavior of water is most directly responsible for this phenomenon?

Temperature usually increases when water condenses. Which behavior of water is most directly responsible for this phenomenon? A) the change...

Which type of bond must be broken for water to vaporize?

Which type of bond must be broken for water to vaporize? A) ionic bonds B) both hydrogen bonds and ionic bonds C) polar covalent bonds D) hydrogen...

Liquid water's high specific heat is mainly a consequence of the

Liquid water's high specific heat is mainly a consequence of the A) small size of the water molecules. B) high specific heat of oxygen and...

The nutritional information on a cereal box shows that one serving of a dry cereal has 200 kilocalories. If one were to burn one serving of the cereal, the amount of heat given off would be sufficient to raise the temperature of 20 kg of water how many degrees Celsius?

The nutritional information on a cereal box shows that one serving of a dry cereal has 200 kilocalories. If one were to burn one serving of the cereal,...

A dietary Calorie equals 1 kilocalorie. Which of the following statements correctly defines 1 kilocalorie?

A dietary Calorie equals 1 kilocalorie. Which of the following statements correctly defines 1 kilocalorie? A) 1,000 calories, or the amount...

Which of the following takes place as an ice cube cools a drink?

Which of the following takes place as an ice cube cools a drink? A) Molecular collisions in the drink increase. B) Kinetic energy in the drink...

Which of the following effects is produced by the high surface tension of water?

Which of the following effects is produced by the high surface tension of water? A) Lakes don't freeze solid in winter, despite low temperatures. B)...

Water molecules are able to form hydrogen bonds with

Water molecules are able to form hydrogen bonds with A) compounds that have polar covalent bonds. B) oils. C) oxygen gas (O2) molecules. D)...

Sulfur is in the same column of the periodic table as oxygen, but has electronegativity similar to carbon. Compared to water molecules, molecules of H2S

Sulfur is in the same column of the periodic table as oxygen, but has electronegativity similar to carbon. Compared to water molecules, molecules of...

The partial negative charge in a molecule of water occurs because

The partial negative charge in a molecule of water occurs because A) the oxygen atom acquires an additional electron. B) the electrons shared...

The slight negative charge at one end of one water molecule is attracted to the slight positive charge of another water molecule. What is this attraction called?

The slight negative charge at one end of one water molecule is attracted to the slight positive charge of another water molecule. What is this attraction...

In a single molecule of water, two hydrogen atoms are bonded to a single oxygen atom by

In a single molecule of water, two hydrogen atoms are bonded to a single oxygen atom by A) hydrogen bonds. B) nonpolar covalent bonds. C)...

What coefficients must be placed in the following blanks so that all atoms are accounted for in the products? C6H12O6 ? C2H6O + CO2

What coefficients must be placed in the following blanks so that all atoms are accounted for in the products?C6H12O6 ? ____ C2H6O + ____ CO2 A)...

The atomic number of sulfur is 16. Sulfur combines with hydrogen by covalent bonding to form a compound, hydrogen sulfide. Based on the number of valence electrons in a sulfur atom, predict the molecular formula of the compound:

The atomic number of sulfur is 16. Sulfur combines with hydrogen by covalent bonding to form a compound, hydrogen sulfide. Based on the number of valence...

We can represent atoms by listing the number of protons, neutrons, and electrons: for example, 2p?; 2n°; 2e? for helium. Which of the following represents the 18O isotope of oxygen?

We can represent atoms by listing the number of protons, neutrons, and electrons: for example,2p?; 2n°; 2e? for helium. Which of the following represents...

Which of the following statements correctly describes any chemical reaction that has reached equilibrium?

Which of the following statements correctly describes any chemical reaction that has reached equilibrium? A) The concentrations of products...

Which statement is true of all atoms that are anions?

Which statement is true of all atoms that are anions? A) The atom has more electrons than protons. B) The atom has more protons than electrons. C)...

The reactivity of an atom arises from

The reactivity of an atom arises from A) the average distance of the outermost electron shell from the nucleus. B) the existence of unpaired...

Compared with ³¹P, the radioactive isotope ³²P has

Compared with ³¹P, the radioactive isotope ³²P has A) a different atomic number. B) a different charge. C) one more proton. D) one more electron. E)...

In the term trace element, the modifier trace means that

In the term trace element, the modifier trace means that A) the element is required in very small amounts. B) the element can be used as...

Which group of molecular biologists is trying to synthesize a new artificial compound to mimic the effects of a known hormone that influences sexual behavior. They have turned to you for advice. Which of the following compounds is most likely to mimic the effects of the hormone?

Which group of molecular biologists is trying to synthesize a new artificial compound to mimic the effects of a known hormone that influences sexual...

Which drawing in the figure above depicts an atom with a valence of 3?

Which drawing in the figure above depicts an atom with a valence of 3? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer: ...

Which drawing in the figure above depicts the most electronegative atom?

Which drawing in the figure above depicts the most electronegative atom? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer:...

Which drawing in the figure above is of the electron configuration of a sodium 11Na? ion?

Which drawing in the figure above is of the electron configuration of a sodium 11Na? ion? A) A B) B C) C D) D E) E Answer:...

Which drawing in the figure above depicts the electron configuration of an atom capable of forming three covalent bonds with other atoms?

Which drawing in the figure above depicts the electron configuration of an atom capable of forming three covalent bonds with other atoms? A)...

Which drawing in the figure above depicts the electron configuration of an atom that can form covalent bonds with two hydrogen atoms?

Which drawing in the figure above depicts the electron configuration of an atom that can form covalent bonds with two hydrogen atoms? A)...

Which drawing in the figure above depicts the electron configuration of an element with chemical properties most similar to Helium (2He)?

Which drawing in the figure above depicts the electron configuration of an element with chemical properties most similar to Helium (2He)? A)...

Refer to the figure above (first three rows of the periodic table). If life arose on a planet where carbon is absent, which element might fill the role of carbon?

Refer to the figure above (first three rows of the periodic table). If life arose on a planet where carbon is absent, which element might fill the role...