Archive for December 2016

If the auditor believes that required disclosures are omitted from the financial statements, the auditor should decide between issuing a(n)

If the auditor believes that required disclosures are omitted from the financial statements, the auditor should decide between issuing a(n)



a. Qualified opinion or an adverse opinion.
b. Disclaimer of opinion or a qualified opinion.
c. Adverse opinion or a disclaimer of opinion.
d. Unqualified opinion or a qualified opinion.








Answer: D

Keller, CPA, was about to issue an unqualified opinion on the financial statements of Lupton Television Broadcasting company when a letter was received from Lupton's independent counsel. The letter stated that the Federal Communications Commission has notified Lupton that its broadcasting license will not be renewed because of alleged irregularities in its broadcasting practices. Lupton cannot continue to operate without the license. Keller has also learned that Lupton and its independent counsel plan to take all necessary legal action to retain the license. The letter from independent counsel, however, states that a favorable outcome of any legal action is highly uncertain. On the basis of this information, what action should Keller take?

Keller, CPA, was about to issue an unqualified opinion on the financial statements of Lupton Television Broadcasting company when a letter was received from Lupton's independent counsel. The letter stated that the Federal Communications Commission has notified Lupton that its broadcasting license will not be renewed because of alleged irregularities in its broadcasting practices. Lupton cannot continue to operate without the license. Keller has also learned that Lupton and its independent counsel plan to take all necessary legal action to retain the license. The letter from independent counsel, however, states that a favorable outcome of any legal action is highly uncertain. On the basis of this information, what action should Keller take?





a. Issue an unqualified opinion, with an explanatory paragraph that describes the matter giving rise to the uncertainty.
b. Issue an unqualified opinion if full disclosure is made of the matter in a note to the financial statements.
c. Issue an adverse opinion and disclose all reasons why.
d. Issue a piecemeal opinion with full disclosure made of the license dispute in a note to the financial statements.












Answer: A

An auditor concludes that there is substantial doubt about an entity's ability to continue as a going concern. If the entity's disclosures about continued existence are adequate, the audit report may include A Disclaimer of Opinion A qualifed Opinion ----------------------- ------------------

An auditor concludes that there is substantial doubt about an entity's ability to continue as a going concern. If the entity's disclosures about continued existence are adequate, the audit report may include

A Disclaimer of Opinion A qualifed Opinion
----------------------- ------------------




a. Yes Yes
b. No No
c. No Yes
d. Yes No





Answer: B

When management prepares financial statements on the basis of a going concern and the auditor believes the company may not continue as a going concern, the auditor should issue a(n)

When management prepares financial statements on the basis of a going concern and the auditor believes the company may not continue as a going concern, the auditor should issue a(n)


a. Qualified opinion.
b. Unqualified opinion with an explanatory paragraph.
c. Disclaimer of opinion.
d. Adverse opinion.









Answer: B

An auditor's report that refers to a departure form generally accepted accounting principles includes the language. "In our opinion, with the foregoing explanation, the financial statements referred to above present fairly...." This is a(n)

An auditor's report that refers to a departure form generally accepted accounting principles includes the language. "In our opinion, with the foregoing explanation, the financial statements referred to above present fairly...." This is a(n)



a. Adverse opinion.
b. Qualified opinion.
c. Unqualified opinion with an explanatory paragraph
d. Example of inappropriate reporting.







Answer: D

An explanatory paragraph following an opinion paragraph describes an uncertainty as follows: As discussed in Note X to the financial statements, the company is a defendant in a lawsuit alleging infringement of certain patent rights and claiming damages. Discovery proceedings are in progress. The ultimate outcome of the litigation cannot presently be determined. Accordingly, no provision for any liability that may result upon adjudication has been made in the accompanying financial statements. What type of opinion should the auditor express in this circumstance?

An explanatory paragraph following an opinion paragraph describes an uncertainty as follows:
As discussed in Note X to the financial statements, the company is a defendant in a lawsuit alleging infringement of certain patent rights and claiming damages. Discovery proceedings are in progress. The ultimate outcome of the litigation cannot presently be determined. Accordingly, no provision for any liability that may result upon adjudication has been made in the accompanying financial statements.
What type of opinion should the auditor express in this circumstance?




a. Unqualified
b. Qualified
c. Disclaimer
d. Adverse








Answer: A

A principal auditor is satisfied both with the independence and professional reputation of another auditor who audited a subsidiary, but wants to share responsibility with the other auditor in the audit report. The principal auditor should

A principal auditor is satisfied both with the independence and professional reputation of another auditor who audited a subsidiary, but wants to share responsibility with the other auditor in the audit report. The principal auditor should






a. Modify the scope and opinion paragraphs of the report.
b. Modify the introductory and opinion paragraph of thereport.
c. Not modify the report except for including in explanatory paragraph.
d. Modify the opinion paragraph of the report.







Answer: B

Does an auditor make the following representations explicitly or implicitly in a standard audit report on comparative financial statements?

Does an auditor make the following representations explicitly or implicitly in a standard audit report on comparative financial statements?


Accounting Application of Examination of Evidence
Accounting Principles on a Test Basis
------------------------- -----------------------




a. Explicitly Explicitly
b. Implicitly Implicitly
c. Implicitly Explicitly
d. Explicitly Implicitly






Answer: C

Under Statement on Auditing Standards No. 59, "The Auditor's consideration of an Entity's Ability to continue as a Going Concern," an independent auditor is responsible for

Under Statement on Auditing Standards No. 59, "The Auditor's consideration of an Entity's Ability to continue as a Going Concern," an independent auditor is responsible for





a. Predicting whether the entity will be in business one year from the balance sheet date.
b. Evaluating whether there is substantial doubt about the entity's ability to continue as a going concern.
c. Weighing mitigating factors against contrary information about the entity's ability to continue as a going concern.
d. Reporting the entity's ability to continue as a going concern to senior management and to the board of directors.








Answer: B

Which of the following statements indicates a qualified opinion?

Which of the following statements indicates a qualified opinion?





a. The financial statements do not present fairly in all material respects the financial position, results of operations, and cash flows in conformity with GAAP.
b. The auditor does not express an opinion on the financial statements.
c. The financial statements present fairly in all material respects the financial position, results of operations, and cash flows in conformity with GAAP.
d. Except for the effects of a matter, the financial statements present fairly in all material respects the financial position, results of operations, and cash flows in conformity with GAAP.








Answer: D

An auditor completed field work on February 10, 2002 for a December 31, 2001 year-end client. A significant subsequent event occurred on February 22, 2002. In this case, which of the following report dates would not be appropriate?

An auditor completed field work on February 10, 2002 for a December 31, 2001 year-end client. A significant subsequent event occurred on February 22, 2002. In this case, which of the following report dates would not be appropriate?



a. February 10, 2002.
b. February 10, except Note 1, February 22, 2002.
c. February 22, 2002.
d. December 31, 2001.






Answer: D

An audit report should be dated as of the

An audit report should be dated as of the




a. Date the report is delivered to the entity audited.
b. Date of the last day of fieldwork.
c. Balance sheet date of the latest period reported on.
d. Date a letter of audit inquiry is received from the entity's attorney of record.









Answer: B

In which of the following circumstances would an adverse opinion be appropriate?

In which of the following circumstances would an adverse opinion be appropriate?






a. The auditor is not independent with respect to the enterprise being audited.
b. An uncertainty prevents the issuance of an unqualified report.
c. The statements are not in conformity with authoritative statements regarding accounting for pension plans.
d. A client imposed scope limitation prevents the auditor from complying with generally accepted auditing standards.








Answer: C

An auditor includes an explanatory paragraph in an otherwise unqualified report in order to emphasize that the entity being reported on is a subsidiary of another business enterprise. The inclusion of this paragraph

An auditor includes an explanatory paragraph in an otherwise unqualified report in order to emphasize that the entity being reported on is a subsidiary of another business enterprise. The inclusion of this paragraph






a. Is appropriate and would not negate the unqualified opinion.
b. Is a qualification.
c. Is a violation of generally accepted reporting standards if this information is disclosed in footnotes to the financial statements.
d. Necessitates a revision of the opinion paragraph to include the phrase "with the foregoing explanation."








Answer: A

Under which of the following sets of circumstances might an auditor disclaim an opinion?

Under which of the following sets of circumstances might an auditor disclaim an opinion?



a. The financial statements contain a departure from GAAP, the effect of which is material.
b. The principal auditor decides to make reference to the report of another auditor who audited a subsidiary.
c. There has been a material change between periods in the method of the application of accounting principles.
d. There were significant limitations on the scope of the audit.









Answer: D

Raider, Inc. uses the last-in, first-out method to value half of its inventory and the first-in, first-out method to value the other half. Assuming the auditor is satisfied in all other respects, under these circumstances the auditor will issue a(n)

Raider, Inc. uses the last-in, first-out method to value half of its inventory and the first-in, first-out method to value the other half. Assuming the auditor is satisfied in all other respects, under these circumstances the auditor will issue a(n)





a. Opinion modified due to inconsistency.
b. Unqualified opinion with an explanatory middle paragraph.
c. Qualified or adverse opinion, depending on materiality.
d. Unqualified opinion.






Answer: D

An auditor's standard report expressed an unqualified opinion and includes an explanatory paragraph that emphasizes a matter included in the notes to the financial statements. The auditor's report would be deficient if the explanatory paragraph states that the entity

An auditor's standard report expressed an unqualified opinion and includes an explanatory paragraph that emphasizes a matter included in the notes to the financial statements. The auditor's report would be deficient if the explanatory paragraph states that the entity





a. Is a component at a larger business enterprise.
b. Has changed from the completed contract method to the percentage of completion method to account for long term construction contracts.
c. Has had a significant subsequent event.
d. Has accounting reclassifications that enhance the comparability between years.







Answer: B

When comparative financial statements are presented, the fourth reporting standard, which refers to financial statements "taken as a whole", should be considered to apply to the financial statements of the

When comparative financial statements are presented, the fourth reporting standard, which refers to financial statements "taken as a whole", should be considered to apply to the financial statements of the





a. Periods presented plus one preceding period.
b. Current period only.
c. Current period and those of the other periods presented.
d. Current and immediately preceding period only.








Answer: C

If an accounting change has no material effect on the financial statements in the current year but the change is reasonably certain to have a material effect in later years, the change should be

If an accounting change has no material effect on the financial statements in the current year but the change is reasonably certain to have a material effect in later years, the change should be



a. Treated as a consistency modification in the auditor's report for the current year.
b. Disclosed in the notes to the financial statements of the current year.
c. Disclosed in the notes to the financial statements and referred to in the auditor's report for the current year.
d. Treated as a subsequent event.









Answer: B

An auditor's report includes a statement that "the financial statements do not present fairly the financial position in conformity with generally accepted accounting principles." This auditor's report was probably issued in connection with financial statements that were

An auditor's report includes a statement that "the financial statements do not present fairly the financial position in conformity with generally accepted accounting principles." This auditor's report was probably issued in connection with financial statements that were




a. Prepared on a comprehensive basis for accounting other than GAAP.
b. Restricted for use by management.
c. Misleading.
d. Condensed.






Answer: C

The fourth reporting standard requires that the auditor's report contain either an expression of opinion regarding the financial statements taken as a whole or an assertion that an opinion cannot be expressed. The objective of the fourth standard is to prevent

The fourth reporting standard requires that the auditor's report contain either an expression of opinion regarding the financial statements taken as a whole or an assertion that an opinion cannot be expressed. The objective of the fourth standard is to prevent





a. An auditor from reporting on one basic financial statement and not the others.
b. An auditor from expressing different opinions on each of the basic financial statements.
c. Management from reducing its responsibility for the basic financial statements.
d. Misinterpretations about the degree of responsibility the auditor assumes.







Answer: D

An auditor would issue an adverse opinion if

An auditor would issue an adverse opinion if





a. The audit was begun by other independent auditors who withdrew from the engagement.
b. A qualified opinion cannot be given because the auditor lacks independence.
c. The restriction on the scope of the audit was significant.
d. The statements taken as a whole do not fairly present the financial position, results of operations, and cash flows of the company.








Answer: D

The management of a client company believes that the statement of cash flow is not a useful document and refuses to include one in the annual report to stockholders. As a result, the auditor's opinion should be

The management of a client company believes that the statement of cash flow is not a useful document and refuses to include one in the annual report to stockholders. As a result, the auditor's opinion should be





a. Qualified due to inadequate disclosure.
b. Qualified due to a scope limitation.
c. Adverse
d. Unqualified.







Answer: A

In which of the following situations would the auditor appropriately issue a standard unqualified report with no explanatory paragraph concerning consistency?

In which of the following situations would the auditor appropriately issue a standard unqualified report with no explanatory paragraph concerning consistency?






a. A change in the method of accounting for specific subsidiaries that comprise the group of companies for which consolidated statements are presented.
b. A change from an accounting principle that is not generally accepted to one that is generally accepted.
c. A change in the percentage used to calculate the provision for warranty expense.
d. Correction of mistake in the application of a generally accepted accounting principle.







Answer: C

An auditor's report contains the following: We did not audit the financial statements of B Company, a consolidated subsidiary, which statements reflect total assets and revenues constituting 20 percent and 22 percent, respectively, of the related consolidated totals. These statements were audited by other auditors, whose report has been furnished to us, and our opinion insofar as it relates to the amounts included for B Company, is based solely upon the report of the other auditors. These sentences

An auditor's report contains the following: We did not audit the financial statements of B Company, a consolidated subsidiary, which statements reflect total assets and revenues constituting 20 percent and 22 percent, respectively, of the related consolidated totals. These statements were audited by other auditors, whose report has been furnished to us, and our opinion insofar as it relates to the amounts included for B Company, is based solely upon the report of the other auditors. These sentences






a. Disclaim an opinion.
b. Qualify the opinion.
c. Divide responsibility.
d. Should not be part of the audit report.




Answer: C

Which of the following statements best describes the primary purpose of Statements on Auditing Standards?

Which of the following statements best describes the primary purpose of Statements on Auditing Standards?






a. Guides intended to set forth auditing procedures that are applicable to a variety of situations.
b. Outlines intended to narrow the areas of inconsistency and divergence of auditor opinion.
c. Authoritative statements, enforced through the code of professional conduct, and intended to limit the degree of auditor judgment.
d. Interpretations intended to clarify the meaning of generally accepted auditing standards.






Answer: D



A public accounting firm studies its personnel advancement experience to determine whether individuals meeting stated criteria are assigned increased degrees of responsibility. This is evidence of the firm's adherence to

A public accounting firm studies its personnel advancement experience to determine whether individuals meeting stated criteria are assigned increased degrees of responsibility. This is evidence of the firm's adherence to



a. Generally accepted auditing standards.
b. Attestation standards.
c. Supervision and review.
d. Quality control standards.







Answer: D

In pursuing its quality control objectives with respect to assigning personnel to engagements, a public accounting firm may use policies and procedures such as

In pursuing its quality control objectives with respect to assigning personnel to engagements, a public accounting firm may use policies and procedures such as





a. Rotating employees from assignment to assignment on a random basis to aid in the staff training effort.
b. Requiring timely identification of the staffing requirements of specific engagements so that enough qualified personnel can be made available.
c. Allowing staff to select the assignments of their choice to promote better client relationships.
d. Assigning a number of employees to each engagement in excess of the number required so as not to overburden the staff and interfere with the quality of the audit work performed.







Answer: B

The objective of quality control mandates that a public accounting firm should establish policies and procedures for professional development that provide reasonable assurance that all entry-level personnel

The objective of quality control mandates that a public accounting firm should establish policies and procedures for professional development that provide reasonable assurance that all entry-level personnel




a. Prepare working papers that are standardized in form and content.
b. Have the knowledge required to enable them to fulfill responsibilities assigned.
c. Will advance within the organization.
d. Develop specialties in specific areas of public accounting.









Answer: B

The concept of materiality would be least important to an auditor in determining

The concept of materiality would be least important to an auditor in determining





a. Transactions that should be reviewed.
b. The need for disclosing a particular transaction or event.
c. The extent of audit work planned for particular accounts.
d. The effects of an auditor's direct financial interest in a client.









Answer: D

The auditor's judgment concerning the overall fairness of the presentation of financial positions, results of operations and cash flows is applied within the framework of

The auditor's judgment concerning the overall fairness of the presentation of financial positions, results of operations and cash flows is applied within the framework of





a. Quality control.
b. Generally accepted auditing standards that include the concept of materiality.
c. The auditor's evaluation of the audited company's internal controls.
d. Generally accepted accounting principles.








Answer: D

The fourth generally accepted auditing standard of reporting requires an auditor to render a report whenever an auditor's name is associated with financial statements. The overall purpose of the fourth standard of reporting is to require that reports

The fourth generally accepted auditing standard of reporting requires an auditor to render a report whenever an auditor's name is associated with financial statements. The overall purpose of the fourth standard of reporting is to require that reports





a. Assure that the auditor is independent with respect to the financial statements audited.
b. State that the audit has been conducted in accordance with generally accepted auditing standards.
c. Indicate the character of the engagement and the degree of responsibility assumed by the auditor.
d. Express whether the accounting principles used in preparing the financial statements have been applied consistently in the period audited.









Answer: C

Which of the following underlies the application of generally accepted auditing standards, particularly the standards of field work and reporting?

Which of the following underlies the application of generally accepted auditing standards, particularly the standards of field work and reporting?




a. The elements of materiality and risk.
b. The element of internal control.
c. The element of corroborating evidence.
d. The element of reasonable assurance.









Answer: A

In connection with the third generally accepted auditing standard of field work, an auditor examines corroborating evidential matter that includes all of the following except

In connection with the third generally accepted auditing standard of field work, an auditor examines corroborating evidential matter that includes all of the following except





a. Client accounting manuals.
b. Written client representations.
c. Vendor invoice.
d. Minutes of board meetings.








Answer: B

The first standard of field work, which states that the work is to be adequately planned and assistants, if any, are to be properly supervised, recognizes that

The first standard of field work, which states that the work is to be adequately planned and assistants, if any, are to be properly supervised, recognizes that






a. Early appointment of the auditor is advantageous both to the auditor and to the client.
b. Acceptance of an audit engagement after the case of the client's fiscal year is generally not permissible.
c. Appointment of the auditor subsequent to the physical count of inventories requires a disclaimer of opinion.
d. Performance of substantial parts of the engagement is necessary at interim dates.








Answer: A

The third general standard states that due care is to be exercised in the performance of an audit, and should be interpreted to mean that an auditor who undertakes an engagement assumes a duty to perform

The third general standard states that due care is to be exercised in the performance of an audit, and should be interpreted to mean that an auditor who undertakes an engagement assumes a duty to perform







a. With reasonable diligence and without fault or error.
b. As a professional who will assume responsibility for losses consequent upon error of judgment.
c. To the satisfaction of the client and third parties.
d. As a professional possessing the degree of skill commonly possessed by others in the field.






Answer: D

What is the meaning of the generally accepted auditing standard that requires that the auditor be independent?

What is the meaning of the generally accepted auditing standard that requires that the auditor be independent?






a. The auditor must be without bias with respect to the client audited.
b. The auditor must adopt a critical attitude during the audit.
c. The auditor's sole obligation is to third parties.
d. The auditor may have a direct ownership interest in the client's business if it is not material.






Answer: A

The first general standard requires that a person or persons have adequate technical training and proficiency as an auditor. This standard is met by

The first general standard requires that a person or persons have adequate technical training and proficiency as an auditor. This standard is met by





a. Understanding business and finance.
b. Education and experience in auditing.
c. Continuing professional education.
d. Knowledge of the Statements of Auditing Standards.









Answer: B

Which of the following is mandatory if the auditor is to comply with the general standards of the AICPA's generally accepted auditing standards?

Which of the following is mandatory if the auditor is to comply with the general standards of the AICPA's generally accepted auditing standards?





a. Adequate technical training.
b. Use analytical procedures.
c. Use statistical sampling when feasible on an audit engagement.
d. Confirmation of material accounts receivable balances.







Answer: A

The "hallmark" of auditing is

The "hallmark" of auditing is




a. Available audit technology.
b. Generally accepted auditing standards.
c. Professional judgment.
d. Materiality and audit risk.








Answer: C

In a financial statement audit, inherent risk represents the

In a financial statement audit, inherent risk represents the




a. Susceptibility of an account balance to error that could be material.
b. Risk that error could occur and not be prevented
c. Risk that error could occur and not be detected by the auditor's procedures.
d. Risk that the auditor fails to modify materially misstated financial statements.







Answer: A

In a financial statement audit, audit risk represents the probability that

In a financial statement audit, audit risk represents the probability that






a. Internal control fails and the failure is not detected by the auditor's procedures.
b. The auditor unknowingly fails to modify an opinion on materially misstated financial statements.
c. Inherent and control risk cause errors that could be material to the financial statements.
d. The auditor is not retained to conduct a financial statement audit in the succeeding year.






Answer: B

Williams & Co., a large international public accounting firm, is due to have a peer review. The peer review will most likely be performed by

Williams & Co., a large international public accounting firm, is due to have a peer review. The peer review will most likely be performed by



a. Employees and partners of Williams & Co. who are not associated with the particular audits being reviewed.
b. Audit review staff of the Securities and Exchange Commission.
c. Audit review staff of the AICPA.
d. Employees and partners of another firm.







Answer: D

Tay-Sachs disease is a human genetic abnormality that results in cells accumulating and becoming clogged with very large and complex lipids. Which cellular organelle must be involved in this condition?

Tay-Sachs disease is a human genetic abnormality that results in cells accumulating and becoming clogged with very large and complex lipids. Which cellular organelle must be involved in this condition? 




A) the endoplasmic reticulum
B) the Golgi apparatus
C) the lysosome
D) mitochondria
E) membrane-bound ribosomes






Answer: C

Which of the following statements correctly describes some aspect of protein secretion from prokaryotic cells?

Which of the following statements correctly describes some aspect of protein secretion from prokaryotic cells? 





A) Prokaryotes are unlikely to be able to secrete proteins because they lack an endomembrane system.
B) The mechanism of protein secretion in prokaryotes is probably the same as that in eukaryotes.
C) Proteins that are secreted by prokaryotes are synthesized on ribosomes that are bound to the cytoplasmic surface of the plasma membrane.
D) In prokaryotes, the ribosomes that are used for the synthesis of secreted proteins are located outside of the cell.
E) Prokaryotes contain large pores in their plasma membrane that permit the movement of proteins out of the cell.






Answer: C

Hydrolytic enzymes must be segregated and packaged to prevent general destruction of cellular components. Which of the following organelles contains these hydrolytic enzymes in animal cells?

Hydrolytic enzymes must be segregated and packaged to prevent general destruction of cellular components. Which of the following organelles contains these hydrolytic enzymes in animal cells?






A) chloroplast
B) lysosome
C) central vacuole
D) peroxisome
E) glyoxysome






Answer: B

The difference in lipid and protein composition between the membranes of the endomembrane system is largely determined by

The difference in lipid and protein composition between the membranes of the endomembrane system is largely determined by 






A) the physical separation of most membranes from each other.
B) the transportation of membrane lipids among the endomembrane system by small membrane vesicles.
C) the function of the Golgi apparatus in sorting and directing membrane components.
D) the modification of the membrane components once they reach their final destination.
E) the synthesis of different lipids and proteins in each of the organelles of the endomembrane system.





Answer: C

The fact that the outer membrane of the nuclear envelope has bound ribosomes allows one to most reliably conclude that

The fact that the outer membrane of the nuclear envelope has bound ribosomes allows one to most reliably conclude that 






A) at least some of the proteins that function in the nuclear envelope are made by the ribosomes on the nuclear envelope.
B) the nuclear envelope is not part of the endomembrane system.
C) the nuclear envelope is physically separated from the endoplasmic reticulum.
D) small vesicles from the Golgi fuse with the nuclear envelope.
E) nuclear pore complexes contain proteins.






Answer: A

The Golgi apparatus has a polarity or sidedness to its structure and function. Which of the following statements correctly describes this polarity?

The Golgi apparatus has a polarity or sidedness to its structure and function. Which of the following statements correctly describes this polarity? 





A) Transport vesicles fuse with one side of the Golgi and leave from the opposite side.
B) Proteins in the membrane of the Golgi may be sorted and modified as they move from one side of the Golgi to the other.
C) Lipids in the membrane of the Golgi may be sorted and modified as they move from one side of the Golgi to the other.
D) Soluble proteins in the cisternae (interior) of the Golgi may be sorted and modified as they move from one side of the Golgi to the other.
E) All of the above correctly describe polar characteristics of the Golgi function.






Answer: E

A cell with a predominance of free ribosomes is most likely

A cell with a predominance of free ribosomes is most likely 






A) producing primarily proteins for secretion.
B) producing primarily cytoplasmic proteins.
C) constructing an extensive cell wall or extracellular matrix.
D) digesting large food particles.
E) enlarging its vacuole.






Answer: B

Recent evidence shows that when chromosomes decondense during interphase, their DNA molecules do not intermingle. Instead, they occupy distinct territories within the nucleus. Considering the structure and location of the following structures, which is most likely to be involved in chromosome location?

Recent evidence shows that when chromosomes decondense during interphase, their DNA molecules do not intermingle. Instead, they occupy distinct territories within the nucleus. Considering the structure and location of the following structures, which is most likely to be involved in chromosome location? 






A) nuclear pores
B) the nucleolus
C) microfilaments
D) the nuclear lamina
E) the nuclear matrix





Answer: E

The nuclear lamina is an array of filaments on the inner side of the nuclear membrane. If a method were found that could cause the lamina to fall into disarray, what would you expect to be the most likely consequence?

The nuclear lamina is an array of filaments on the inner side of the nuclear membrane. If a method were found that could cause the lamina to fall into disarray, what would you expect to be the most likely consequence? 





A) the loss of all nuclear function
B) the inability of the nucleus to divide during cell division
C) a change in the shape of the nucleus
D) failure of chromosomes to carry genetic information
E) inability of the nucleus to keep out destructive chemicals






Answer: C

If radioactive deoxythymidine triphosphate (dTTP) is added to a culture of rapidly growing bacterial cells, where in the cell would you expect to find the greatest concentration of radioactivity?

If radioactive deoxythymidine triphosphate (dTTP) is added to a culture of rapidly growing bacterial cells, where in the cell would you expect to find the greatest concentration of radioactivity? 






A) nucleus
B) cytoplasm
C) endoplasmic reticulum
D) nucleoid
E) ribosomes







Answer: D

The evolution of eukaryotic cells most likely involved

The evolution of eukaryotic cells most likely involved 






A) endosymbiosis of an aerobic bacterium in a larger host cell–the endosymbiont evolved into mitochondria.
B) anaerobic archaea taking up residence inside a larger bacterial host cell to escape toxic oxygen–the anaerobic bacterium evolved into chloroplasts.
C) an endosymbiotic fungal cell evolved into the nucleus.
D) acquisition of an endomembrane system, and subsequent evolution of mitochondria from a portion of the Golgi.







Answer: A

Which of the following statements concerning bacteria and archaea cells is correct?

Which of the following statements concerning bacteria and archaea cells is correct? 





A) Archaea cells contain small membrane-enclosed organelles; bacteria do not.
B) Archaea cells contain a membrane-bound nucleus; bacteria do not.
C) DNA is present in both archaea cells and bacteria cells.
D) DNA is present in the mitochondria of both bacteria and archaea cells.






Answer: A

Which of the following is a major cause of the size limits for certain types of cells?

Which of the following is a major cause of the size limits for certain types of cells? 





A) limitation on the strength and integrity of the plasma membrane as cell size increases
B) the difference in plasma membranes between prokaryotes and eukaryotes
C) evolutionary progression in cell size; more primitive cells have smaller sizes
D) the need for a surface area of sufficient area to support the cell's metabolic needs
E) rigid cell walls that limit cell size expansion






Answer: D

A mycoplasma is an organism with a diameter between 0.1 and 1.0 µm. What does the organism's size tell you about how it might be classified?

A mycoplasma is an organism with a diameter between 0.1 and 1.0 µm. What does the organism's size tell you about how it might be classified? 






A) It must be a single-celled protist.
B) It must be a single-celled fungus.
C) It could be almost any typical bacterium.
D) It could be a typical virus.
E) It could be a very small bacterium.







Answer: E

The volume enclosed by the plasma membrane of plant cells is often much larger than the corresponding volume in animal cells. The most reasonable explanation for this observation is that

The volume enclosed by the plasma membrane of plant cells is often much larger than the corresponding volume in animal cells. The most reasonable explanation for this observation is that 






A) plant cells are capable of having a much higher surface-to-volume ratio than animal cells.
B) plant cells have a much more highly convoluted (folded) plasma membrane than animal cells.
C) plant cells contain a large vacuole that reduces the volume of the cytoplasm.
D) animal cells are more spherical, whereas plant cells are elongated.
E) plant cells can have lower surface-to-volume ratios than animal cells because plant cells synthesize their own nutrients.







Answer: C

What is the reason that a modern electron microscope (TEM) can resolve biological images to the subnanometer level, as opposed to tens of nanometers achievable for the best super-resolution light microscope?

What is the reason that a modern electron microscope (TEM) can resolve biological images to the subnanometer level, as opposed to tens of nanometers achievable for the best super-resolution light microscope? 





A) The focal length of the electron microscope is significantly longer.
B) Contrast is enhanced by staining with atoms of heavy metal.
C) Electron beams have much shorter wavelengths than visible light.
D) The electron microscope has a much greater ratio of image size to real size.
E) The electron microscope cannot image whole cells at one time.







Answer: C

Green fluorescent protein (GFP) can be used to fluorescently label a specific protein in cells by genetically engineering cells to synthesize the target protein fused to GFP. What is the advantage of using GFP fusions to visualize specific proteins, instead of staining cells with fluorescently labeled probes that bind to the target protein?

Green fluorescent protein (GFP) can be used to fluorescently label a specific protein in cells by genetically engineering cells to synthesize the target protein fused to GFP. What is the advantage of using GFP fusions to visualize specific proteins, instead of staining cells with fluorescently labeled probes that bind to the target protein? 







A) GFP fusions enable one to track changes in the location of the protein in living cells; staining usually requires preserved cells.
B) GFP fusions enable higher resolution than staining with fluorescent probes.
C) GFP permits the position of the protein in the cell more precisely than fluorescent probes.
D) GFP permits visualization of protein-protein interactions; fluorescent probes do not.
E) GFP fusions are not subject to artifacts; fluorescent probes may introduce background artifacts.





Answer: A

Which of the following correctly lists the order in which cellular components will be found in the pellet when homogenized cells are treated with increasingly rapid spins in a centrifuge?

Which of the following correctly lists the order in which cellular components will be found in the pellet when homogenized cells are treated with increasingly rapid spins in a centrifuge? 






A) ribosomes, nucleus, mitochondria
B) chloroplasts, ribosomes, vacuoles
C) nucleus, ribosomes, chloroplasts
D) vacuoles, ribosomes, nucleus
E) nucleus, mitochondria, ribosomes







Answer: E

In the fractionation of homogenized cells using centrifugation, the primary factor that determines whether a specific cellular component ends up in the supernatant or the pellet is

In the fractionation of homogenized cells using centrifugation, the primary factor that determines whether a specific cellular component ends up in the supernatant or the pellet is 







A) the relative solubility of the component.
B) the size and weight of the component.
C) the percentage of carbohydrates in the component.
D) the presence or absence of nucleic acids in the component.
E) the presence or absence of lipids in the component.





Answer: B

A primary objective of cell fractionation is to

A primary objective of cell fractionation is to 






A) view the structure of cell membranes.
B) sort cells based on their size and weight.
C) determine the size of various organelles.
D) separate the major organelles so that their particular functions can be determined.
E) separate lipid-soluble from water-soluble molecules.





Answer: D

The advantage of light microscopy over electron microscopy is that

The advantage of light microscopy over electron microscopy is that 





A) light microscopy provides for higher magnification than electron microscopy.
B) light microscopy provides for higher resolving power than electron microscopy.
C) light microscopy allows one to view dynamic processes in living cells.
D) light microscopy provides higher contrast than electron microscopy.
E) specimen preparation for light microcopy does not produce artifacts.





Answer: C

Enzymes that break down DNA catalyze the hydrolysis of the covalent bonds that join nucleotides together. What would happen to DNA molecules treated with these enzymes?

Enzymes that break down DNA catalyze the hydrolysis of the covalent bonds that join nucleotides together. What would happen to DNA molecules treated with these enzymes? 







A) The two strands of the double helix would separate.
B) The phosphodiester linkages of the polynucleotide backbone would be broken.
C) The purines would be separated from the deoxyribose sugars.
D) The pyrimidines would be separated from the deoxyribose sugars.
E) All bases would be separated from the deoxyribose sugars.






Answer: B

Which of the following statements concerning unsaturated fats is true?

Which of the following statements concerning unsaturated fats is true? 




A) They are more common in animals than in plants.
B) They have double bonds in the carbon chains of their fatty acids.
C) They generally solidify at room temperature.
D) They contain more hydrogen than do saturated fats having the same number of carbon atoms.
E) They have fewer fatty acid molecules per fat molecule.







Answer: B

The enzyme amylase can break glycosidic linkages between glucose monomers only if the monomers are in the a form. Which of the following could amylase break down?

The enzyme amylase can break glycosidic linkages between glucose monomers only if the monomers are in the a form. Which of the following could amylase break down? 





A) glycogen, starch, and amylopectin
B) glycogen and cellulose
C) cellulose and chitin
D) starch and chitin
E) starch, amylopectin, and cellulose







Answer: A

Professor Jamey Marth at the University of California, Santa Barbara, identified 70 molecules that are used to build cellular macromolecules and structures. These include at least 34 saccharides, 8 nucleosides, and 20 amino acids. In theory, then, which class of biological polymer has the greatest information-coding capacity?

Professor Jamey Marth at the University of California, Santa Barbara, identified 70 molecules that are used to build cellular macromolecules and structures. These include at least 34 saccharides, 8 nucleosides, and 20 amino acids. In theory, then, which class of biological polymer has the greatest information-coding capacity? 






A) polysaccharides
B) proteins
C) DNA
D) RNA






Answer: A

Approximately 32 different monomeric carbohydrate subunits are found in various natural polysaccharides. Proteins are composed of 20 different amino acids. DNA and RNA are each synthesized from four nucleotides. Among these biological polymers, which has the least structural variety?

Approximately 32 different monomeric carbohydrate subunits are found in various natural polysaccharides. Proteins are composed of 20 different amino acids. DNA and RNA are each synthesized from four nucleotides.
Among these biological polymers, which has the least structural variety? 







A) polysaccharides
B) proteins
C) DNA
D) RNA






Answer: C

Which of the following is not a monomer/polymer pairing?

Which of the following is not a monomer/polymer pairing? 





A) monosaccharide/polysaccharide
B) amino acid/protein
C) triglyceride/phospholipid bilayer
D) deoxyribonucleotide/DNA
E) ribonucleotide/RNA






Answer: C

Which of the following is not a monomer/polymer pairing?

Which of the following is not a monomer/polymer pairing? 





A) monosaccharide/polysaccharide
B) amino acid/protein
C) triglyceride/phospholipid bilayer
D) deoxyribonucleotide/DNA
E) ribonucleotide/RNA





Answer: C

How will brief heating (to 95°C) affect macromolecular structures in aqueous solution?

How will brief heating (to 95°C) affect macromolecular structures in aqueous solution? 





A) DNA duplexes will unwind and separate.
B) Proteins will unfold (denature).
C) Starch will hydrolyze into monomeric sugars.
D) Proteins will hydrolyze into amino acids.
E) DNA duplexes will unwind and separate, and proteins will unfold (denature).






Answer: E

Which of the following is an example of hydrolysis?

Which of the following is an example of hydrolysis? 




A) the reaction of two monosaccharides, forming a disaccharide with the release of water
B) the synthesis of two amino acids, forming a peptide with the release of water
C) the reaction of a fat, forming glycerol and fatty acids with the release of water
D) the reaction of a fat, forming glycerol and fatty acids with the consumption of water
E) the synthesis of a nucleotide from a phosphate, a pentose sugar, and a nitrogenous base with the production of a molecule of water






Answer: D

A new organism is discovered in the forests of Costa Rica. Scientists there determine that the polypeptide sequence of hemoglobin from the new organism has 72 amino acid differences from humans, 65 differences from a gibbon, 49 differences from a rat, and 5 differences from a frog. These data suggest that the new organism

A new organism is discovered in the forests of Costa Rica. Scientists there determine that the polypeptide sequence of hemoglobin from the new organism has 72 amino acid differences from humans, 65 differences from a gibbon, 49 differences from a rat, and 5 differences from a frog. These data suggest that the new organism 





A) is more closely related to humans than to frogs.
B) is more closely related to frogs than to humans.
C) evolved at about the same time as frogs, which is much earlier than primates and mammals.
D) is more closely related to humans than to rats.
E) is more closely related to frogs than to humans and also evolved at about the same time as frogs, which is much earlier than primates and mammals.





Answer: B

What is the structural feature that allows DNA to replicate?

What is the structural feature that allows DNA to replicate? 




A) sugar-phosphate backbone
B) complementary pairing of the nitrogenous bases
C) disulfide bonding (bridging) of the two helixes
D) twisting of the molecule to form an a helix
E) three-component structure of the nucleotides








Answer: B

A given solution contains 0.0001(10?4) moles of hydrogen ions [H?] per liter. Which of the following best describes this solution?

A given solution contains 0.0001(10?4) moles of hydrogen ions [H?] per liter. Which of the following best describes this solution? 






A) acidic: will accept H? from both strong and weak acids
B) basic: will accept H? from both strong and weak acids
C) acidic: will give H? to weak acids, but accept H+ from strong acids
D) basic: will give H? to weak acids, but accept H? from weak acids
E) acidic: will give H? to both strong and weak acids





Answer: C

A strong acid like HCl

A strong acid like HCl 






A) ionizes completely in an aqueous solution.
B) increases the pH when added to an aqueous solution.
C) reacts with strong bases to create a buffered solution.
D) is a strong buffer at low pH.
E) both ionizes completely in aqueous solutions and is a strong buffer at low pH.





Answer: A

You have a freshly prepared 1 M solution of glucose in water. You carefully pour out a 100 mL sample of that solution. How many glucose molecules are included in that 100 mL sample?

You have a freshly prepared 1 M solution of glucose in water. You carefully pour out a 100 mL sample of that solution. How many glucose molecules are included in that 100 mL sample? 






A) 6.02 × 10²³
B) 3.01 × 10²³
C) 6.02 × 10²4
D) 12.04 × 10²³
E) 6.02 × 10²²





Answer: E

The molar mass of glucose (C6H12O6) is 180 g/mol. Which of the following procedures should you carry out to make a 0.5 M solution of glucose?

The molar mass of glucose (C6H12O6) is 180 g/mol. Which of the following procedures should you carry out to make a 0.5 M solution of glucose? 





A) Dissolve 0.5 g of glucose in a small volume of water, and then add more water until the total volume of solution is 1 L.
B) Dissolve 90 g of glucose in a small volume of water, and then add more water until the total volume of the solution is 1 L.
C) Dissolve 180 g of glucose in a small volume of water, and then add more water until the total volume of the solution is 1 L.
D) Dissolve 0.5 g of glucose in 1 L of water.
E) Dissolve 180 g of glucose in 0.5 L of water.






Answer: B

The molar mass of glucose is 180 g/mol. Which of the following procedures should you carry out to make a 1 M solution of glucose?

The molar mass of glucose is 180 g/mol. Which of the following procedures should you carry out to make a 1 M solution of glucose? 





A) Dissolve 1 g of glucose in 1 L of water.
B) Dissolve 180 g of glucose in 1 L of water.
C) Dissolve 180 g of glucose in 180 g of water.
D) Dissolve 180 milligrams (mg) of glucose in 1 L of water.
E) Dissolve 180 g of glucose in 0.8 L of water, and then add more water until the total volume of the solution is 1 L.





Answer: E

One mole (mol) of glucose (molecular mass = 180 daltons) is

One mole (mol) of glucose (molecular mass = 180 daltons) is 






A) 180 × 10²³ molecules of glucose.
B) 1 kg of glucose dissolved in 1 L of solution.
C) the largest amount of glucose that can be dissolved in 1 L of solution.
D) 180 kilograms of glucose.
E) both 180 grams of glucose and 6.02 × 10²³ molecules of glucose.






Answer: E

Hydrophobic substances such as vegetable oil are

Hydrophobic substances such as vegetable oil are 







A) nonpolar substances that repel water molecules.
B) nonpolar substances that have an attraction for water molecules.
C) polar substances that repel water molecules.
D) polar substances that have an affinity for water.
E) charged molecules that hydrogen-bond with water molecules.







Answer: A

Why does ice float in liquid water?

Why does ice float in liquid water? 






A) The high surface tension of liquid water keeps the ice on top.
B) The ionic bonds between the molecules in ice prevent the ice from sinking.
C) Ice always has air bubbles that keep it afloat.
D) Hydrogen bonds stabilize and keep the molecules of ice farther apart than the water molecules of liquid water.
E) The crystalline lattice of ice causes it to be denser than liquid water.






Answer: D

Why does evaporation of water from a surface cause cooling of the surface?

Why does evaporation of water from a surface cause cooling of the surface? 







A) The breaking of bonds between water molecules absorbs heat.
B) The water molecules with the most heat energy evaporate more readily.
C) The solute molecules left behind absorb heat.
D) Water molecules absorb heat from the surface in order to acquire enough energy to evaporate.
E) The expansion of water vapor extracts heat from the surface.







Answer: B

Temperature usually increases when water condenses. Which behavior of water is most directly responsible for this phenomenon?

Temperature usually increases when water condenses. Which behavior of water is most directly responsible for this phenomenon? 






A) the change in density when it condenses to form a liquid or solid
B) reactions with other atmospheric compounds
C) the release of heat by the formation of hydrogen bonds
D) the release of heat by the breaking of hydrogen bonds
E) the high surface tension of water




Answer: C

Which type of bond must be broken for water to vaporize?

Which type of bond must be broken for water to vaporize? 



A) ionic bonds
B) both hydrogen bonds and ionic bonds
C) polar covalent bonds
D) hydrogen bonds
E) both polar covalent bonds and hydrogen bonds







Answer: D

Liquid water's high specific heat is mainly a consequence of the

Liquid water's high specific heat is mainly a consequence of the 





A) small size of the water molecules.
B) high specific heat of oxygen and hydrogen atoms.
C) absorption and release of heat when hydrogen bonds break and form.
D) fact that water is a poor heat conductor.
E) higher density of liquid water than solid water (ice).






Answer: C

The nutritional information on a cereal box shows that one serving of a dry cereal has 200 kilocalories. If one were to burn one serving of the cereal, the amount of heat given off would be sufficient to raise the temperature of 20 kg of water how many degrees Celsius?

The nutritional information on a cereal box shows that one serving of a dry cereal has 200 kilocalories. If one were to burn one serving of the cereal, the amount of heat given off would be sufficient to raise the temperature of 20 kg of water how many degrees Celsius? 







A) 0.2°C
B) 1.0°C
C) 2.0°C
D) 10.0°C
E) 20.0°C






Answer: D

A dietary Calorie equals 1 kilocalorie. Which of the following statements correctly defines 1 kilocalorie?

A dietary Calorie equals 1 kilocalorie. Which of the following statements correctly defines 1 kilocalorie? 





A) 1,000 calories, or the amount of heat required to raise the temperature of 1 g of water by 1,000°C
B) 100 calories, or the amount of heat required to raise the temperature of 100 g of water by 1°C
C) 10,000 calories, or the amount of heat required to raise the temperature of 1 kg of water by 1°F
D) 1,000 calories, or the amount of heat required to raise the temperature of 1 kg of water by 1°C
E) 1,000 calories, or the amount of heat required to raise the temperature of 100 g of water by 100°C






Answer: D

Which of the following takes place as an ice cube cools a drink?

Which of the following takes place as an ice cube cools a drink? 





A) Molecular collisions in the drink increase.
B) Kinetic energy in the drink decreases.
C) A calorie of heat energy is transferred from the ice to the water of the drink.
D) The specific heat of the water in the drink decreases.
E) Evaporation of the water in the drink increases.







Answer: B

Which of the following effects is produced by the high surface tension of water?

Which of the following effects is produced by the high surface tension of water? 






A) Lakes don't freeze solid in winter, despite low temperatures.
B) A water strider can walk across the surface of a small pond.
C) Organisms resist temperature changes, although they give off heat due to chemical reactions.
D) Evaporation of sweat from the skin helps to keep people from overheating.
E) Water flows upward from the roots to the leaves in plants.







Answer: B

Water molecules are able to form hydrogen bonds with

Water molecules are able to form hydrogen bonds with 






A) compounds that have polar covalent bonds.
B) oils.
C) oxygen gas (O2) molecules.
D) chloride ions.
E) any compound that is not soluble in water.





Answer: A

Sulfur is in the same column of the periodic table as oxygen, but has electronegativity similar to carbon. Compared to water molecules, molecules of H2S

Sulfur is in the same column of the periodic table as oxygen, but has electronegativity similar to carbon. Compared to water molecules, molecules of H2S 






A) will ionize more readily.
B) will have greater cohesion to other molecules of H2S.
C) will have a greater tendency to form hydrogen bonds with each other.
D) will have a higher capacity to absorb heat for the same change in temperature.
E) will not form hydrogen bonds with each other.






Answer: E

The partial negative charge in a molecule of water occurs because

The partial negative charge in a molecule of water occurs because 






A) the oxygen atom acquires an additional electron.
B) the electrons shared between the oxygen and hydrogen atoms spend more time around the oxygen atom nucleus than around the hydrogen atom nucleus.
C) the oxygen atom has two pairs of electrons in its valence shell that are not neutralized by hydrogen atoms.
D) the oxygen atom forms hybrid orbitals that distribute electrons unequally around the oxygen nucleus.
E) one of the hydrogen atoms donates an electron to the oxygen atom.







Answer: B

The atomic number of sulfur is 16. Sulfur combines with hydrogen by covalent bonding to form a compound, hydrogen sulfide. Based on the number of valence electrons in a sulfur atom, predict the molecular formula of the compound:

The atomic number of sulfur is 16. Sulfur combines with hydrogen by covalent bonding to form a compound, hydrogen sulfide. Based on the number of valence electrons in a sulfur atom, predict the molecular formula of the compound: 




A) HS
B) HS2
C) H2S
D) H3S2
E) H4S






Answer: C

We can represent atoms by listing the number of protons, neutrons, and electrons: for example, 2p?; 2n°; 2e? for helium. Which of the following represents the 18O isotope of oxygen?

We can represent atoms by listing the number of protons, neutrons, and electrons: for example,
2p?; 2n°; 2e? for helium. Which of the following represents the 18O isotope of oxygen? 






A) 6p?, 8n°, 6e?
B) 8p?, 10n°, 8e?
C) 9p?, 9n°, 9e?
D) 7p?, 2n°, 9e?
E) 10p?, 8n°, 9e?





Answer: B

Which of the following statements correctly describes any chemical reaction that has reached equilibrium?

Which of the following statements correctly describes any chemical reaction that has reached equilibrium? 





A) The concentrations of products and reactants are equal.
B) The reaction is now irreversible.
C) Both forward and reverse reactions have halted.
D) The rates of the forward and reverse reactions are equal.
E) No reactants remain.






Answer: D

Which statement is true of all atoms that are anions?

Which statement is true of all atoms that are anions? 





A) The atom has more electrons than protons.
B) The atom has more protons than electrons.
C) The atom has fewer protons than does a neutral atom of the same element.
D) The atom has more neutrons than protons.
E) The net charge is 1-.






Answer: A

The reactivity of an atom arises from

The reactivity of an atom arises from 







A) the average distance of the outermost electron shell from the nucleus.
B) the existence of unpaired electrons in the valence shell.
C) the sum of the potential energies of all the electron shells.
D) the potential energy of the valence shell.
E) the energy difference between the s and p orbitals.






Answer: B

Compared with ³¹P, the radioactive isotope ³²P has

Compared with ³¹P, the radioactive isotope ³²P has 





A) a different atomic number.
B) a different charge.
C) one more proton.
D) one more electron.
E) one more neutron.





Answer: E

In the term trace element, the modifier trace means that

In the term trace element, the modifier trace means that 






A) the element is required in very small amounts.
B) the element can be used as a label to trace atoms through an organism's metabolism.
C) the element is very rare on Earth.
D) the element enhances health but is not essential for the organism's long-term survival.
E) the element passes rapidly through the organism.







Answer: A

Which group of molecular biologists is trying to synthesize a new artificial compound to mimic the effects of a known hormone that influences sexual behavior. They have turned to you for advice. Which of the following compounds is most likely to mimic the effects of the hormone?

Which group of molecular biologists is trying to synthesize a new artificial compound to mimic the effects of a known hormone that influences sexual behavior. They have turned to you for advice. Which of the following compounds is most likely to mimic the effects of the hormone? 





A) a compound with the same number of carbon atoms as the hormone
B) a compound with the same molecular mass (measured in daltons) as the hormone
C) a compound with the same three-dimensional shape as part of the hormone
D) a compound with the same number of orbital electrons as the hormone
E) a compound with the same number of hydrogen and nitrogen atoms as the hormone





Answer: C

Which of these systems is least likely to be at chemical equilibrium?

Which of these systems is least likely to be at chemical equilibrium? 






A) a test tube of living cells
B) a test tube of organic molecules, kept in the freezer
C) a test tube of dry organic molecules, kept at room temperature
D) a test tube of organic molecules dissolved in water, kept at room temperature
E) a test tube of dead cells in water, kept at room temperature






Answer: A

Which of the following correctly describes any reaction that has reached chemical equilibrium?

Which of the following correctly describes any reaction that has reached chemical equilibrium? 






A) The concentration of the reactants equals the concentration of the products.
B) The rate of the forward reaction is equal to the rate of the reverse reaction.
C) All of the reactants have been converted to the products of the reaction.
D) All of the products have been converted to the reactants of the reaction.
E) Both the forward and the reverse reactions have stopped with no net effect on the concentration of the reactants and the products.






Answer: B

Which of the following correctly describes chemical equilibrium?

Which of the following correctly describes chemical equilibrium? 






A) Forward and reverse reactions continue with no effect on the concentrations of the reactants and products.
B) Concentrations of products are higher than the concentrations of the reactants.
C) Forward and reverse reactions have stopped so that the concentration of the reactants equals the concentration of the products.
D) Reactions stop only when all reactants have been converted to products.
E) There are equal concentrations of reactants and products, and the reactions have stopped.






Answer: A

Which of the following is true for this reaction? 3 H2 + N2 ? 2 NH3

Which of the following is true for this reaction?
3 H2 + N2 ? 2 NH3 





A) The reaction is nonreversible.
B) Hydrogen and nitrogen are the reactants of the reverse reaction.
C) Hydrogen and nitrogen are the products of the forward reaction.
D) Ammonia is being formed and decomposed.
E) Hydrogen and nitrogen are being decomposed.





Answer: D
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