How is pseudomembranous colitis treated?

How is pseudomembranous colitis treated?Answer: Discontinue offending drug and start metronidazole or vancomycin. Both suppress C. difficile and...

Which one of the two exotoxins produced by C. difficile is most responsible for pseudomembranous colitis?

Which one of the two exotoxins produced by C. difficile is most responsible for pseudomembranous colitis?Answer: Cytotoxin kills enterocytes causing...

Name the two exotoxins produced by C. difficile:

Name the two exotoxins produced by C. difficile:1. Cytotoxin2. Enteroto...

What commonly causes pseudomembranous colitis?

What commonly causes pseudomembranous colitis?Answer: Usage of broad-spectrum antibiotic treatment (eg, clindamycin or ampicillin) results in suppression...

How is botulism treated?

How is botulism treated?Answer: Classic botulism can be treated with respiratory care and antitoxin; as for infant botulism, infants typically recover...

What are the symptoms of classic botulism?

What are the symptoms of classic botulism?Answer: Cranial paralysis, including diplopia, ptosis, dysphagia, symmetric, descending motor paralysis,...

What usually causes infant botulism? What are its associated symptoms?

What usually causes infant botulism? What are its associated symptoms?Answer: Results from infant ingestion of contaminated honey leading to lethargy,...

What is the mechanism of botulinum toxin in causing botulism?

What is the mechanism of botulinum toxin in causing botulism?Answer: The toxin blocks the release of acetyl-choline (Ach), resulting in flaccid ...

What diseases does C. botulinum cause?

What diseases does C. botulinum cause?Answer: Clostridium botulinum causes food-borne botulism (ingestion of preformed toxin), infant botulism (ingestion...

CLOSTRIDIUM BOTULINUM Do Clostridium species require oxygen?

CLOSTRIDIUM BOTULINUM Do Clostridium species require oxygen?Answer: No, they are all obligate anaerob...

How is B. cereus treated?

How is B. cereus treated?Answer: The food poisoning is self-limited, so it is treated with supportive care to prevent dehydrati...

What are the clinical symptoms caused by the heat-labile and heat-stable toxins?

What are the clinical symptoms caused by the heat-labile and heat-stable toxins?Answer: Rapid onset (<5 hours) of vomiting and nausea following...

Name the gram-negative rod that produces a toxin similar to the heat-labile toxin of B. cereus. What are their mechanisms of action?

Name the gram-negative rod that produces a toxin similar to the heat-labile toxin of B. cereus. What are their mechanisms of action?Answer: Vibrio...

Name the two toxins made by B. cereus.

Name the two toxins made by B. cereus.1. Heat-labile toxin2. Heat-stable to...

BACILLUS CEREUS Name the most common clinical association with Bacillus cereus:

BACILLUS CEREUS Name the most common clinical association with Bacillus cereus:Answer: Food poisoning from reheated r...

How is anthrax usually treated?

How is anthrax usually treated?Answer: Penicillin, tetracyclines, and fluoro-quinolones (remember the rush to get ciprofloxacin during the anthrax...

What are the clinical symptoms of gastrointestinal anthrax? What is the overall mortality rate?

What are the clinical symptoms of gastrointestinal anthrax? What is the overall mortality rate?Answer: Bloody vomiting, bloody diarrhea, abdominal...

What are the clinical symptoms of pulmonary anthrax? What is the overall mortality rate?

What are the clinical symptoms of pulmonary anthrax? What is the overall mortality rate?Answer: First stage (first 2-3 days) consists of influenza-like...

What are the clinical symptoms of cutaneous anthrax? What is the overall mortality rate?

What are the clinical symptoms of cutaneous anthrax? What is the overall mortality rate?Black, painless papules, and pustules erupt on skin surface, then...

Name the three virulence factors of B. anthracis and describe their mechanism of action:

Name the three virulence factors of B. anthracis and describe their mechanism of action:1. Capsule is antiphagocytic.2. Edema factor exotoxin is acalmodulin-dependent...

BACILLUS ANTHRACIS Name three pathologic manifestations of Bacillus anthracis and their routes of transmission:

BACILLUS ANTHRACIS Name three pathologic manifestations of Bacillus anthracis and their routes of transmission:1. Cutaneous anthrax by contact with animal...

Which gram-positive rods don't form spores?

Which gram-positive rods don't form spores?Answer: Carynebacterium and Liste...

What other gram-positive rods form endospores?

What other gram-positive rods form endospores?Answer: Clostridium species also form spor...

Do all Bacillus bacteria form spores?

Do all Bacillus bacteria form spores?Answer: ...

A 55-year-old woman develops Janeway lesions, Osler nodes, splinter hemorrhages, and Roth spots about 1 month after a tooth extraction. She has a history of rheumatic heart disease. What is the most common causative microbe?

A 55-year-old woman develops Janeway lesions, Osler nodes, splinter hemorrhages, and Roth spots about 1 month after a tooth extraction. She has a history...

A boy presents with sore throat, arthralgias, headache, and fever. On examination, his tonsils are enlarged, erythematous, and covered with white exudates. He also has tender cervical lymphadenopathy. You diagnose the patient with pharyngitis and swab his throat to look for what organism on culture? What are two feared complications from this infection?

A boy presents with sore throat, arthralgias, headache, and fever. On examination, his tonsils are enlarged, erythematous, and covered with white exudates....

A child presents with a rash that is diffusely erythematous, with superimposed fine red papules, and is most pronounced in the groin and axilla. His face is notably flushed and he has strawberry tongue (enlarged red papillae coating the tongue). Prior to the rash, he had a sore throat. What is your presumed diagnosis?

A child presents with a rash that is diffusely erythematous, with superimposed fine red papules, and is most pronounced in the groin and axilla. His face...

A 3-month-old male infant presents with extensive bullae and areas of denuded skin, with the epidermis easily dislodging under pressure. His mother had a recent bacterial infection. What is the diagnosis and causative organism?

A 3-month-old male infant presents with extensive bullae and areas of denuded skin, with the epidermis easily dislodging under pressure. His mother had...

A preschooler presents with a superficial skin infection characterized by erythema with pustules and a honey-colored crust. There are areas of superficial bullae, and some have ruptured leaving raw exudative areas. What is the diagnosis and what are the causative organisms?

A preschooler presents with a superficial skin infection characterized by erythema with pustules and a honey-colored crust. There are areas of superficial...

A previously healthy young woman was admitted to the intensive care unit (ICU) with high fever, hypotension, nausea, vomiting, disseminated sunburn-like rash, generalized muscle ache, and imminent cardiac and renal failure. Her last menstrual period was about 5 days ago. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A previously healthy young woman was admitted to the intensive care unit (ICU) with high fever, hypotension, nausea, vomiting, disseminated sunburn-like...

Who should receive the S. pneumoniae vaccine?

Who should receive the S. pneumoniae vaccine?Answer: Older patients (>65), immunocompro-mised patients, diabetics, asplenic patients, and chronic...

How is S. pneumoniae treated?

How is S. pneumoniae treated?Answer: Penicillin is the drug of choice although, penicillin resistance is increasingly prevalent by virtue of altered...

What is the clinical significance of the IgA protease?

What is the clinical significance of the IgA protease?Answer: IgA protease allows for infection of the respiratory tract, leading to sinusitis and...

What is the clinical significance of the polysaccharide capsule?

What is the clinical significance of the polysaccharide capsule?Answer: It is antiphagocytic, antibodies to the capsule are protective (S. pneumoniae...

What are the important virulence factors for S. pneumoniae?

What are the important virulence factors for S. pneumoniae?Answer: Polysaccharide capsule, IgA protease, pneumolysin, and lipotechoic a...

How is S. pneumoniae described under the microscope?

How is S. pneumoniae described under the microscope?Answer: Gram-positive lancet-shaped diploco...

What diseases do S. pneumoniae cause?

What diseases do S. pneumoniae cause?Answer: Pneumonia, meningitis (most common cause of bacterial meningitis in adults), otitis media (most common...

What are the viridans group streptococci and where are they normally found?

What are the viridans group streptococci and where are they normally found?Answer: Human gastrointestinal tract flora. They are normally found in...

What Streptococci have no Lancefield group and are alpha-hemolytic?

What Streptococci have no Lancefield group and are alpha-hemolytic?Answer: S. pneumoniae and viridans group streptoco...

What diseases are associated with non-Enterococcus group D Streptococcus (S. bovis)?

What diseases are associated with non-Enterococcus group D Streptococcus (S. bovis)?Answer: Endocarditis or bacteremia in the presence of colon ...

What diseases are associated with group D Enterococcus (E. faecalis and E. faecium)?

What diseases are associated with group D Enterococcus (E. faecalis and E. faecium)?Answer: UTIs, endocarditis, and peritoni...

What diseases are associated with group B streptococci or S. agalactiae?

What diseases are associated with group B streptococci or S. agalactiae?Answer: Sepsis and meningitis in neonates and UTIs (some women may have vaginal...

What is scarlet fever?

What is scarlet fever?Answer: Erythrogenic toxin-mediated disease that develops in association with infections of certain strains of S. pyogenes...

Describe the immunofluorescence pattern of AGN glomerular basement membranes. What complement factor is decreased in the serum as a result?

Describe the immunofluorescence pattern of AGN glomerular basement membranes. What complement factor is decreased in the serum as a result?Answer: Immune...

What is poststreptococcal acute glomerulonephritis (AGN)?

What is poststreptococcal acute glomerulonephritis (AGN)?Answer: Immunologic disease caused by deposited antigen-antibody complexes onto the glomerular...

Where is the most frequent damaged site of the heart as a result of recurrent infections with streptococci?

Where is the most frequent damaged site of the heart as a result of recurrent infections with streptococci?Mitral valve is the most common site followed...

How is rheumatic fever diagnosed?

How is rheumatic fever diagnosed?Answer: Using the modified Jones criteria, which require two major criteria (carditis, migratory polyarthritis,...

Pathology Correlate: What are the pathognomonic lesions of rheumatic heart disease?

Pathology Correlate: What are the pathognomonic lesions of rheumatic heart disease?Answer: Aschoff bodies, which are foci of fibrinoid necrosis surrounded...

What is rheumatic fever?

What is rheumatic fever?Answer: Immunologic disease caused by cross-reactivity of S. pyogenes M protein and antigens of joint and heart tissue. Clinically...

What is necrotizing fasciitis and how is it treated?

What is necrotizing fasciitis and how is it treated?Answer: Very serious subcutaneous infection that spreads rapidly along fascial plane typically...

How is Streptococcus impetigo differentiated from Staphylococcus impetigo? Why is it always important to treat Streptococcus impetigo?

How is Streptococcus impetigo differentiated from Staphylococcus impetigo? Why is it always important to treat Streptococcus impetigo?Answer: Streptococcus...

How does S. pyogenes pharyngitis usually present and why must it be treated with antibiotics?

How does S. pyogenes pharyngitis usually present and why must it be treated with antibiotics?High fevers, pharyngeal erythema, swollen tonsils with exudates,...

Streptococcus pyogenes causes disease through what three broad pathogenic mechanisms?

Streptococcus pyogenes causes disease through what three broad pathogenic mechanisms?1. Pyogenic inflammation (pharyngitis and cellulitis)2. Toxin-mediated...

Which toxins act as superantigens? Which one is more often associated with streptococcal toxic shock syndrome (TSS)?

Which toxins act as superantigens? Which one is more often associated with streptococcal toxic shock syndrome (TSS)?Answer: Erythrogenic and exotoxin...

What toxins are associated with S. pyogenes?

What toxins are associated with S. pyogenes?Answer: Erythrogenic toxin, exotoxins A and B, Streptolysin O and...

What is M protein?

What is M protein?Answer: Antiphagocytic virulence factor S. pyogenes. Specific types of M protein are associated with pharyngitis/acute rheumatic...

What virulence factor causes β-hemolysis?

What virulence factor causes β-hemolysis?Answer: Streptolysin O and S. Streptolysin O is inactivated by oxygen and antistreptolysin O (ASO) antibodies...

Describe the Lancefield group, type of hemolysis, and key diagnostic features for the following:

Describe the Lancefield group, type of hemolysis, and key diagnostic features for the following:Streptococcus pyogenesLancefield group A, β-hemolytic,...

How are Streptococcus species classified?

How are Streptococcus species classified?Answer: According to Lancefield group (antigen characteristics of the C carbohydrate found on the cell wall)...

How do you treat S. saprophyticus UTIs?

How do you treat S. saprophyticus UTIs?Answer: Fluoroquinolones or trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-S...

What type of infection is S. saprophyticus associated with?

What type of infection is S. saprophyticus associated with?Answer: Second most common cause of urinary tract infections (UTIs) in sexually active...

What allows adherence by S. epidermidis to prosthetic material?

What allows adherence by S. epidermidis to prosthetic material?Answer: Glycocalyx on its caps...

What are the two typical diseases caused by S. epidermidis?

What are the two typical diseases caused by S. epidermidis?Answer: 1. Prosthetic valve endocarditis 2. IV catheter infect...

Where is S. epidermidis normally found?

Where is S. epidermidis normally found?Answer: Skin and mucous membra...

What differentiates Staphylococcus epidermidis from Staphylococcus saprophyticus?

What differentiates Staphylococcus epidermidis from Staphylococcus saprophyticus?Answer: Novobiocin sensitivity. Staphylococcus saprophyticus is...

How is methicillin-resistant S. aureus (MRSA) treated?

How is methicillin-resistant S. aureus (MRSA) treated?Answer: Vancomycin for severe infections. Bactrim, clindamycin, doxycycline for milder infections....

What is used to treat methicillin-sensitive S. aureus infections?

What is used to treat methicillin-sensitive S. aureus infections?Answer: β-Lactamase-resistant penicillin (nafcillin, dicloxacillin) or β-lactam/β-lactamase...

Describe the lesion in impetigo. What patient population presents with impetigo?

Describe the lesion in impetigo. What patient population presents with impetigo?Answer: Bullae that burst and become honey crusted. Seen commonly...

Staphylococcus aureus is the most common cause of postsurgical wound infections. What other skin infections are associated with it?

Staphylococcus aureus is the most common cause of postsurgical wound infections. What other skin infections are associated with it?Answer: Impetigo/cellulitis...

What are some predisposing factors to infections by S. aureus?

What are some predisposing factors to infections by S. aureus?Answer: Diabetes, intravenous (IV) drug use, foreign bodies (sutures, IV cathete...

What are other important S. aureus exotoxins and their mechanisms of action? Coagulase

What are other important S. aureus exotoxins and their mechanisms of action? CoagulaseActivates clotting around S. aureus, thereby preventing phagocytosisStaphylokinaseLyses...

What is the mechanism of action of exf oliatin?

What is the mechanism of action of exf oliatin?Answer: Cleaves desmoglein in desmosomes causing separation of the epider...

Which cytokines are released by superantigens and what is the clinical result?

Which cytokines are released by superantigens and what is the clinical result?Answer: Interleukin-1 (IL-1), interleukin-2 (IL-2), tumor necrosis...

Which S. aureus toxin(s) act as a superantigen and what do superantigens do?

Which S. aureus toxin(s) act as a superantigen and what do superantigens do?Answer: Enterotoxin and TSST. Activate a subpopulation of T cells with...

Which foods are associated with S. aureus food poisoning?

Which foods are associated with S. aureus food poisoning?Answer: Mayonnaise (egg salad, potato salad, and custa...

Which toxin is associated with food poisoning causing vomiting and watery, nonbloody diarrhea? How long do symptoms last?

Which toxin is associated with food poisoning causing vomiting and watery, nonbloody diarrhea? How long do symptoms last?Answer: Enterotoxin. Food...

What are the three most clinically important exotoxins produced by S. aureus?

What are the three most clinically important exotoxins produced by S. aureus?1. Enterotoxin2. Toxic shock syndrome toxin (TSST)3. Exfolia...

What two other important cell wall virulence factors does S. aureus possess?

What two other important cell wall virulence factors does S. aureus possess?1. Teichoic acid2. Polysaccharide caps...

What is protein A and where is it found?

What is protein A and where is it found?Answer: Virulence factor in the cell wall of S. aureus which binds to the Fc portion of immuno-globulin G...

What five features differentiate S. aureus from other species of Staphylococcus?

What five features differentiate S. aureus from other species of Staphylococcus?1. Coagulase positive2. Mannitol fermentation3. β-Hemolytic4. Protein...

Where is S. aureus most often found? Why is this medically important?

Where is S. aureus most often found? Why is this medically important?Answer: Nose. Serves as a reservoir for community-or hospital-acquired methicillin-resistant...

Describe the appearance of Staphylococcus under the microscope:

Describe the appearance of Staphylococcus under the microscope:Answer: Gram-positive irregular grapelike clust...

Which Staphylococcus species forms bubbles when mixed with hydrogen peroxide?

Which Staphylococcus species forms bubbles when mixed with hydrogen peroxide?Answer: Staphylococcus aureus. Catalase degrades peroxide (H2O2) into...

The production of which enzyme differentiates Staphylococcus from Streptococcus?

The production of which enzyme differentiates Staphylococcus from Streptococcus?Answer: CatalaseMnemonic:Cat-in-A-Staff (Staphylococcus aure...

Which vaccinations are important to be given to elderly patients?

Which vaccinations are important to be given to elderly patients?Answer: Pneumococcal (>65 years old) and influenza virus (>50 years old) ...

Which two vaccinations should be given to sickle cell patients as prophylaxis?

Which two vaccinations should be given to sickle cell patients as prophylaxis?1. Haemophilus Influenzae vaccine2. S. pneumoniae vaccine.Since sickle cell...

Why should tetanus antitoxin and tetanus toxoid be given at separate sites when administering as posttetanus exposure prophylaxis?

Why should tetanus antitoxin and tetanus toxoid be given at separate sites when administering as posttetanus exposure prophylaxis?Answer: So that...

Passive immunity in the form of antitoxins is used for the treatment and prevention of which bacterial diseases?

Passive immunity in the form of antitoxins is used for the treatment and prevention of which bacterial diseases?Answer: Tetanus, botulism, dipht...

Which two bacterial vaccines contain purified bacterial proteins?

Which two bacterial vaccines contain purified bacterial proteins?1. Acellular pertussis2. Anthrax vacci...

In what forms are the diphtheria and tetanus vaccines administered?

In what forms are the diphtheria and tetanus vaccines administered?Answer: They are given as toxoids, a nontoxic derivative of a bacterial exotoxin...

In addition to the H. influenzae and S. pneumoniae vaccines, name two other bacterial vaccines consisting of capsular polysaccharides:

In addition to the H. influenzae and S. pneumoniae vaccines, name two other bacterial vaccines consisting of capsular polysaccharides:1. Neisseria meningitidis2....

What type of vaccine is the S. pneumoniae vaccine?

What type of vaccine is the S. pneumoniae vaccine?There are two types of vaccines available for S. pneumoniae. The first vaccine is composed of 23 polysaccha-rides...

The polysaccharide antigen used in the H. influenzae vaccine is a polymer of which substance normally found in the organism's capsule?

The polysaccharide antigen used in the H. influenzae vaccine is a polymer of which substance normally found in the organism's capsule?Answer: Polyribosylribitol...

What type of vaccine is the H. influenzae vaccine?

What type of vaccine is the H. influenzae vaccine?Answer: It is a conjugated vaccine to diphtheria toxoid against the serotype B (the poly-saccharide...

What is bacillus Calmette-Guérin (BCG) vaccine?

What is bacillus Calmette-Guérin (BCG) vaccine?Answer: Live-attenuated Mycobacterium bovis vaccine often used in countries where tuberculosis is...

What are the major disadvantages of killed vaccines?

What are the major disadvantages of killed vaccines?Answer: Multiple doses must be given; immunity is not lifelong; and adjuvants are often required...

What are the major advantages of killed vaccines?

What are the major advantages of killed vaccines?Answer: They are significantly safer than attenuated vaccines in immunocompromised hos...

What is a killed vaccine?

What is a killed vaccine?Answer: Killed vaccines contain organisms inactivated by chemical or physical mea...

What are the disadvantages of live-attenuated vaccines?

What are the disadvantages of live-attenuated vaccines?Answer: Reversion to wild-type is a rare but serious complication, especially in immunocompromised...

What are the advantage of live-attenuated vaccines?

What are the advantage of live-attenuated vaccines?Answer: A single inoculation may lead to lifelong immunity. Mucosal immunity possible with oral...

Pilots shall be prepared to immediately disengage the autopilot, should any unscheduled ________ be evident. An autopilot lateral malfunction can result in bank angles of _____ deg within ____ sec even though recovery is started approximately ____ sec after the malfunction occurs. A pitch up malfunction could cause a stall within ___ seconds and is therefor considered the most serious autopilot malfunction.

Pilots shall be prepared to immediately disengage the autopilot, should any unscheduled ________ be evident. An autopilot lateral malfunction can result...

Since low outside air temperature causes a considerable increase in thrust, the ________________ limitations may be reached with somewhat lower throttle settings.

Since low outside air temperature causes a considerable increase in thrust, the ________________ limitations may be reached with somewhat lower throttle...

During operation at low gross weight, and particularly at low ambient temperature, the airplane accelerates very rapidly; therefor care should be taken to not exceed the ______ during flap retraction.

During operation at low gross weight, and particularly at low ambient temperature, the airplane accelerates very rapidly; therefor care should be taken...

If the airplane fails to pressurize, ensure the cabin test valve handle is in the ______ position.

If the airplane fails to pressurize, ensure the cabin test valve handle is in the ______ position.Answer: Nor...

(Cargo door opening after Takeoff) If conditions permit, maintain a flap setting of ______deg, this will retain the use of outboard ailerons for roll control

(Cargo door opening after Takeoff) If conditions permit, maintain a flap setting of ______deg, this will retain the use of outboard ailerons for roll...

Opening of the cargo door during or after takeoff will be noted by illumination of the _________ and will probably cause severe ________

Opening of the cargo door during or after takeoff will be noted by illumination of the _________ and will probably cause severe ________Answer: Door...

If during a climb all airspeed indicators are determined to be inaccurate, continue max climb thrust and maintain ____ deg of pitch on the ADI for gross weights up to 225K. Maintain ____ deg pitch for gross weights greater than 225K.

If during a climb all airspeed indicators are determined to be inaccurate, continue max climb thrust and maintain ____ deg of pitch on the ADI for gross...

To determine which airspeed indicator is most accurate, the aircraft should be flown with wings level so that the speed deviation pointer indicates _______ (0.6 AOA) and the airspeed reading at ).6 AOA should compare with the corresponding airspeed, for the aircraft weight and configuration obtained from the 1-1.

To determine which airspeed indicator is most accurate, the aircraft should be flown with wings level so that the speed deviation pointer indicates _______...

If there is a disparity between airspeed indicators, the ____________ may be used to determine which indicators are most accurate

If there is a disparity between airspeed indicators, the ____________ may be used to determine which indicators are most accurateAnswer: speed deviation...

For nose up trim, set the inboard spoiler switch to CUT-OUT. This configuration provides approx. ______ units of equivalent trim in takeoff configuration

For nose up trim, set the inboard spoiler switch to CUT-OUT. This configuration provides approx. ______ units of equivalent trim in takeoff configura...

If a stabilizer trim runaway occurs at or below S1, simultaneously the pilot flying will ______ and the pilot not flying will ____________

If a stabilizer trim runaway occurs at or below S1, simultaneously the pilot flying will ______ and the pilot not flying will ____________Answer: abort...

If the leading edge flaps fail to retract when the outboard flaps are raised above the 6 deg position and the outboard spoiler switch is in NORMAL, you should ___________

If the leading edge flaps fail to retract when the outboard flaps are raised above the 6 deg position and the outboard spoiler switch is in NORMAL, you...

Do not operate the _________ and the ________ simultaneously. Slow operation of the ______ and reduced climb performance will result.

Do not operate the _________ and the ________ simultaneously. Slow operation of the ______ and reduced climb performance will result.Answer: Forward...

When the main flaps are retracted and one or both leading edge flaps remain extended, the airplane should be flown with caution at load factors in excess of 1.5 g's in the speed range between ____ and _____ kts.

When the main flaps are retracted and one or both leading edge flaps remain extended, the airplane should be flown with caution at load factors in excess...

If all means of flap synchronization fail and conditions permit, institute ________(if required) and land as soon as possible.

If all means of flap synchronization fail and conditions permit, institute ________(if required) and land as soon as possible.Answer: fuel dump...

If the flap indicators or visual inspection reflect an asymmetric main flap condition and a rolling moment is present, the flap lever should be set to the ____________

If the flap indicators or visual inspection reflect an asymmetric main flap condition and a rolling moment is present, the flap lever should be set to...

Most lateral and directional control difficulties are associated with __

Most lateral and directional control difficulties are associated with _______, ________, ________, ________ or flight control malfunctions.Answer: Engine,...

Takeoff should not be attempted if the oil pressure is more than ______ psi. Bearing failure die to plugged oil jets can result.

Takeoff should not be attempted if the oil pressure is more than ______ psi. Bearing failure die to plugged oil jets can result.Answer: ...

Throttle reduction in response to a failed engine/engine flameout during takeoff or initial climb out after takeoff should not be made prior to ______________

Throttle reduction in response to a failed engine/engine flameout during takeoff or initial climb out after takeoff should not be made prior to ______________Answer: landing...

If a catastrophic engine failure occurs accompanied by a fire, take prompt action to pull fire switch and discharge extinguishing agent. Failure to accomplish these actions promptly can result in loss of _______ controls due to burned electrical wiring bundle.

If a catastrophic engine failure occurs accompanied by a fire, take prompt action to pull fire switch and discharge extinguishing agent. Failure to accomplish...

During actual or simulated engine loss, limit bank angle to ______ deg until as a minimum, the landing gear is up and maneuvering speed is reached.

During actual or simulated engine loss, limit bank angle to ______ deg until as a minimum, the landing gear is up and maneuvering speed is reached.An...

Charted ground min control speeds for a dry runway are based on the immediate use of _____ and corresponding _______

Charted ground min control speeds for a dry runway are based on the immediate use of _____ and corresponding _______Answer: rudder; ...

On wet and icy runways, even with optimum technique, deviations up to ____ ft. from the takeoff path can be expected.

On wet and icy runways, even with optimum technique, deviations up to ____ ft. from the takeoff path can be expected.Answer: ...

Failure of an outboard engine necessitates _______ pilot response to prevent deviations from the takeoff path.

Failure of an outboard engine necessitates _______ pilot response to prevent deviations from the takeoff path.Answer: immedi...

During rotation to takeoff attitude, do not allow the airplane to bank beyond _____ deg due to the possibility of dragging an outboard engine nacelle.

During rotation to takeoff attitude, do not allow the airplane to bank beyond _____ deg due to the possibility of dragging an outboard engine nacelle...

Airspeed indicator errors exist during sideslip. An actual airspeed _________ lower than indicated will exist at ______ deg sideslip

Airspeed indicator errors exist during sideslip. An actual airspeed _________ lower than indicated will exist at ______ deg sideslipAnswer: 7;...

Be ____________ for engine failure.

Be ____________ for engine failure.Answer: mentally prepa...

On a reduced thrust takeoff, do not advance the throttle on the asymmetric engine beyond the ________ since added thrust can cause loss of control.

On a reduced thrust takeoff, do not advance the throttle on the asymmetric engine beyond the ________ since added thrust can cause loss of control.Answer: T/O...

With _______ inoperative, VMCG can be increased by as much as ______kts

With _______ inoperative, VMCG can be increased by as much as ______ktsAnswer: EFAS;...

A complete separation of the nose radome from the aircraft will result in inaccurate indications of ____

A complete separation of the nose radome from the aircraft will result in inaccurate indications of _______, _______, ________, and __________Answer: airspeed;...

(Crash Landing) Do not cut the engines prior to touchdown. This would result in a loss after a few seconds of all _________ and all _________ except that still remaining in the accumulators. Loss of hydraulic power will cause the spoilers to blow down after only a few seconds of operation on accumulator pressure. Electrical control of the stabilizer trim will be lost, leaving only manual trim.

(Crash Landing) Do not cut the engines prior to touchdown. This would result in a loss after a few seconds of all _________ and all _________ except that...

The crewmember is prevented from bending forward when the shoulder harness inertial reel is locked. Therefore all switches not readily accessible should be ________ prior to locking the shoulder harness.

The crewmember is prevented from bending forward when the shoulder harness inertial reel is locked. Therefore all switches not readily accessible should...

(Crash Landing) Extension of the gear for impact is considered beneficial from the stand point of lessening the severity of impact, but not to the extent that an excessive _________ or uncontrollable situation is created. Delay extension If necessary to _________. Prudent judgment must be exercised in determining action to be taken.

(Crash Landing) Extension of the gear for impact is considered beneficial from the stand point of lessening the severity of impact, but not to the extent...

Pilot maintains the ______ approach speed and lands straight ahead, changing directions only enough to miss obstacles. Make contact with the ground in the normal __________

Pilot maintains the ______ approach speed and lands straight ahead, changing directions only enough to miss obstacles. Make contact with the ground in...

(Crash Landing) Crewmembers unstrap parachute harnesses, tighten shoulder harness and safety belts and _____________

(Crash Landing) Crewmembers unstrap parachute harnesses, tighten shoulder harness and safety belts and _____________Answer: lock inertial re...

The copilot gives the "brace for crash landing" warning over the ______ position of the interphone and one long ring on the alarm bell at the direction of the pilot.

The copilot gives the "brace for crash landing" warning over the ______ position of the interphone and one long ring on the alarm bell at the direction...

The boldface for crash landing or ditching immediately after takeoff is

The boldface for crash landing or ditching immediately after takeoff isAnswer: Flaps - 50 degrees; Gear - Down, unless over water; Throttles - Cutoff...

When an airborne emergency occurs, the following rules apply:

When an airborne emergency occurs, the following rules apply:Answer: Fly the airplane; Stop, think, collect your w...

The alarm bell signal for ______ or ________ immediately after takeoff is one long sustained ring.

The alarm bell signal for ______ or ________ immediately after takeoff is one long sustained ring.Answer: Ditching; Crash land...

The alarm bell signal for ditching or crash landing is ______

The alarm bell signal for ditching or crash landing is ______Answer: one long r...

The alarm bell signal to prepare for ditching or crash landing is ______

The alarm bell signal to prepare for ditching or crash landing is ______Answer: six short ri...

Any unusual rolling moment encountered during flap operation could indicate an _________ main or fillet flap condition for which corrective action must be taken immediately.

Any unusual rolling moment encountered during flap operation could indicate an _________ main or fillet flap condition for which corrective action must...

If an engine failure occurs after attaining three engine climb out speed, on a max mode takeoff, continue to climb at the speed attained at the _________

If an engine failure occurs after attaining three engine climb out speed, on a max mode takeoff, continue to climb at the speed attained at the _________Answer: point...

A bank angle of 30 degrees at climb out speed with flaps down could reduce climb capability as much as _______fpm.

A bank angle of 30 degrees at climb out speed with flaps down could reduce climb capability as much as _______fpm.Answer: ...

If the flight director command bars fail during or immediately after takeoff, climb out at recommended ______ climb out (3 engines) or recommended three engine climb out airspeed plus _____ knots (4 engines) with the takeoff flap setting.

If the flight director command bars fail during or immediately after takeoff, climb out at recommended ______ climb out (3 engines) or recommended three...

Adjust the seat and rudder pedals so that the knee can be ______ at full pedal travel with allowance for compression of clothing and seat back cushion.

Adjust the seat and rudder pedals so that the knee can be ______ at full pedal travel with allowance for compression of clothing and seat back cushio...

Do not attempt takeoff when slush and water puddles on the runway exceed _______ inches in depth. When slush or puddles are less then ______ inches in depth, takeoff distances may increase up to ______%

Do not attempt takeoff when slush and water puddles on the runway exceed _______ inches in depth. When slush or puddles are less then ______ inches in...

Ice, frost or snow on top of de-icing or anti-icing fluids _____________

Ice, frost or snow on top of de-icing or anti-icing fluids _____________Answer: must be considered adhered to the airplane and takeoff should not...

Snow and ice accumulation in any significant degree must be removed from the airplane prior to flight. Snow or ice accumulation can increase ______ and adversely affect climb out performance, stalling speed, and handling characteristics. In flight _______ can result from vibrations induced by unremoved accumulations.

Snow and ice accumulation in any significant degree must be removed from the airplane prior to flight. Snow or ice accumulation can increase ______ and...

After a high energy refused takeoff or braked landing, the peak temperatures are reached in the brake hosing approximately _____ min after braking

After a high energy refused takeoff or braked landing, the peak temperatures are reached in the brake hosing approximately _____ min after brakingAns...

Use extreme caution during taxi operations if nose gear steering is inoperative. The airplane should only be taxied ________

Use extreme caution during taxi operations if nose gear steering is inoperative. The airplane should only be taxied ________Answer: as necessary...

If N2 rotation does not occur within 2-3 seconds of opening the bleed valve, ________immediately.

If N2 rotation does not occur within 2-3 seconds of opening the bleed valve, ________immediately.Answer: close engine bleed va...

Do not reengage the starter until below _______. Starter damage can occur if reengaged above _______.

Do not reengage the starter until below _______. Starter damage can occur if reengaged above _______.Answer: 25% N2; 25%...

(Engine Fire on Ground) If the fire cannot be extinguished, the pilot will order the airplane abandoned. Ensure the parking brake is set. Pilot will shut down all engines by retarding all throttles to ____. Shutdown APU by setting APU control switches to _____ and/or tripping external power. Turn off the engine starter switches and _______ before leaving the airplane.

(Engine Fire on Ground) If the fire cannot be extinguished, the pilot will order the airplane abandoned. Ensure the parking brake is set. Pilot will shut...

A nacelle fire is indicated by a _________, _________, or by a ____________

A nacelle fire is indicated by a _________, _________, or by a ____________Answer: Fire warning light; compartment overheat light; ground crew o...

The boldface for engine fire on the ground is:

The boldface for engine fire on the ground is:Answer: Throttle - Cutoff; Fire Switch - Pull; Extinguisher Switch - Pr...

In those cases where the pilot attempts to abort after S1, the pilot must accept the fact that the airplane will probably ______ within the confines of the runway when S1 Is at or near refusal speed.

In those cases where the pilot attempts to abort after S1, the pilot must accept the fact that the airplane will probably ______ within the confines of...

The takeoff will not be aborted after _____ unless, in the opinion of the pilot, the emergency renders the airplane __________ (loss of thrust exceeds the equivalent of loss of one engine).

The takeoff will not be aborted after _____ unless, in the opinion of the pilot, the emergency renders the airplane __________ (loss of thrust exceeds...

The decision to takeoff or abort should be based on the following considerations" If any emergency or _________ occurs prior to S1, ______ the takeoff. If an emergency occurs after S1 is reached, the takeoff is ________

The decision to takeoff or abort should be based on the following considerations" If any emergency or _________ occurs prior to S1, ______ the takeoff....

Do not reset any of the 115/200v AC fuel ___________ circuit breakers, if they are open, until proper inspections and repairs have been made.

Do not reset any of the 115/200v AC fuel ___________ circuit breakers, if they are open, until proper inspections and repairs have been made.Answer: boost...

If the emergency dictates, the APUs may be shut down by pressing the ______

If the emergency dictates, the APUs may be shut down by pressing the _________________Answer: APU disengage swi...

(APU) If fire cannot be extinguished, the pilot will order the airplane abandoned and ensure the _______ is set. Pilot will shut down all engines by retarding all throttles to _______. Shut down the APU by setting APU control switch to _____ and/or trip external power. Turn off ________ switches and ________ switch before leaving the airplane.

(APU) If fire cannot be extinguished, the pilot will order the airplane abandoned and ensure the _______ is set. Pilot will shut down all engines by retarding...

Automatic stopping of the APU may indicate _____________

Automatic stopping of the APU may indicate _____________Answer: Fire or an overheat condition within the li...

The only indication to the pilots of an APU fire is illumination of the _______ fire light.

The only indication to the pilots of an APU fire is illumination of the _______ fire light.Answer: ...

With a large umber of passengers on board, deployment of the emergency escape slide will be necessary. However, do not deploy the escape slide if ______ or other conditions would be detrimental to safe deployment

With a large umber of passengers on board, deployment of the emergency escape slide will be necessary. However, do not deploy the escape slide if ______...

If collision with an obstruction is probable during an abort, a _______ should be attempted, terrain permitting, or attempt to ______

If collision with an obstruction is probable during an abort, a _______ should be attempted, terrain permitting, or attempt to ______Answer: ground...

If during an abort, a safe stop appears improbable, retard the throttles to _____

If during an abort, a safe stop appears improbable, retard the throttles to _____Answer: Cut...

Whenever excessive braking has been used during an abort, consider _________

Whenever excessive braking has been used during an abort, consider _________Answer: abandoning the airpl...

The boldface for abort:

The boldface for abort:Answer: Throttles - Idle; Brakes - Apply; Speed Brakes - 60 Degr...

The emergency signal to abandon the airplane on the ground is _______

The emergency signal to abandon the airplane on the ground is _______Answer: one long sustained r...

The emergency signal to prepare to abandon the airplane on the ground is _________

The emergency signal to prepare to abandon the airplane on the ground is _________Answer: three short rings of the alarm b...

The hatch (located forward of boom operator compartment) is opened from the interior by grasping the fixed handle near the upper center and ______ a lock handle near it.

The hatch (located forward of boom operator compartment) is opened from the interior by grasping the fixed handle near the upper center and ______ a lock...

The over wing hatches are opened from the interior by grasping a fixed handle on the upper center of the hatch and pulling _______ on the lock handle on the right side

The over wing hatches are opened from the interior by grasping a fixed handle on the upper center of the hatch and pulling _______ on the lock handle...

External power must be turned off at the external power cart __________

External power must be turned off at the external power cart __________Answer: before plug is removed from the airplane's external power recepta...

Premature retraction of the landing gear with its momentary drag increase could cause the airplane to ________ unless adequate climb margin has been established.

Premature retraction of the landing gear with its momentary drag increase could cause the airplane to ________ unless adequate climb margin has been ...

Rotation should never be initiated prior to rotate speed. It is highly advantageous to _______ and ________

Rotation should never be initiated prior to rotate speed. It is highly advantageous to _______ and ________Answer: delay rotation when runway and...

During ground run (3pt attitude), do not allow the airplane to bank beyond ___ degrees due to the possibility of dragging a nacelle

During ground run (3pt attitude), do not allow the airplane to bank beyond ___ degrees due to the possibility of dragging a nacelleAnswer:&nbs...

For dry runway conditions, the most effective nose wheel steering occurs at about ____ to ____ degrees of steering wheel turn

For dry runway conditions, the most effective nose wheel steering occurs at about ____ to ____ degrees of steering wheel turnAnswer: 12;...

If any engine does not reach the ______ setting between _____ and _____ kts, the takeoff shall be aborted.

If any engine does not reach the ______ setting between _____ and _____ kts, the takeoff shall be aborted.Answer: charted N1; 40;...

Under all conditions, if the throttle is inadvertently retarded to CUTOFF position there will be an _________. Do not reopen the throttle. Introducing unburned fuel into the tailpipe area can create a ____ hazard.

Under all conditions, if the throttle is inadvertently retarded to CUTOFF position there will be an _________. Do not reopen the throttle. Introducing...

If a hot start, torch (tail pipe fire), hung start or sub-idle start stall condition occurs:

If a hot start, torch (tail pipe fire), hung start or sub-idle start stall condition occurs:Answer: set the throttle to cutoff and motor the engine...

Proper adjustment of the seat and the rudder pedals is especially critical for takeoff, approach and landing where _________ may be required for safe operation of the airplane.

Proper adjustment of the seat and the rudder pedals is especially critical for takeoff, approach and landing where _________ may be required for safe...

Fire fighter equipment containers are located in the control cabin _______ and in the cargo compartment ________

Fire fighter equipment containers are located in the control cabin _______ and in the cargo compartment ________Answer: Above the main entrance hatch;...

There are four escape ropes: two are above the pilot's seat, one above the copilots' seat and one over the _______

There are four escape ropes: two are above the pilot's seat, one above the copilots' seat and one over the _______Answer: Aft emergency exit hatch...